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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94958 | ||
(3 of 3) (‘he,’ ‘his,’ ‘him’), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ ‘it.’” So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa·ra´kle·tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine. I find it most interesting that unfortionately underhanded measures to support the trinity have been necessary through the centuries. If the trinity were true such dishonest measures would not have been needed. A quick review of those measures that are in deed fact but require a little research and study are as follows. 1) Effort to obscure the Almighty God’s true identity by replacing his personal name (yhvh) with the (Hebrew Adonai) word Lord in both the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures (I can list at least 150 translations that use God’s name in the Greek Scriptures instead of the replacement “Lord”.) 2) Adding words to verses such as at 1 John 5:7,8. These add-ons are called spurious texts by scholars 3) Translating from the original tongues in such a way that might be grammatically correct but promotes or supports the trinity doctrine. Examples; John 1:1 ( I know of at least 18 translations that use “a god” instead of making the verse support the trinity doctrine by erroneously using “God“) Titus 2:13 1934 “of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus” The Riverside New Testament,Boston and New York. 1935 “of the great God and of our Saviour Christ Jesus” A New Translation of the Bible, by James Moffatt, New York and London. 1950 “of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn. 1957 “of the great God and of our Savior Jesus Christ” La Sainte Bible, by Louis Segond, Paris. 1970 “of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus” The New American Bible, New York and London. 1972 “of the great God and of Christ Jesus our saviour” The New Testament in Modern English J. B. Phillips, New York. And there is John 14:16,17 where the original did not use the masculine pronoun but underhandedly many modern translations have. Truthfinder |
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22 | KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94957 | ||
(2 of 3) So the [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] or actuating force or “holy spirit” (not the spirit of the world for it is not holy) gave Jesus and other servants of God the power to do what humans ordinarily could not do. The impelling spirit of this world causes man to err against God. What of the Bible verses that speak of the holy spirit in personal terms? Note what Catholic theologian Edmund Fortman says about this in The Triune God: “Although this spirit is often described in personal terms, it seems quite clear that the sacred writers [of the Hebrew Scriptures] never conceived or presented this spirit as a distinct person.” In the Scriptures it is not unusual for something to be personified. Wisdom is said to have children. (Luke 7:35) Sin and death are called kings. (Romans 5:14, 21) At Genesis 4:7 The New English Bible (NE) says: “Sin is a demon crouching at the door,” personifying sin as a wicked spirit crouching at Cain’s door. But, of course, sin is not a spirit person; nor does personifying the holy spirit make it a spirit person. Similarly, at 1 John 5:6-8 (NE) not only the spirit but also “the water, and the blood” are said to be “witnesses.” But water and blood are obviously not persons, and neither is the holy spirit a person. In harmony with this is the Bible’s “general” usage of [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] “holy spirit” in an impersonal way, such as paralleling it with water and fire. (Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:8) People are urged to become filled with holy spirit instead of with wine. (Ephesians 5:18) They are spoken of as being filled with holy spirit in the same way they are filled with such qualities as wisdom, faith, and joy. (Acts 6:3; 11:24; 13:52) And at 2 Corinthians 6:6 holy spirit is included among a number of qualities. Such expressions would not be so common if the holy spirit were actually a person. What is meant and is more logical in the verse at 2 Corinthians 6:6, “we recommend ourselves as God’s ministers, . . . , 6 by purity, by knowledge, by long-suffering, by kindness, by holy spirit, by love. If “holy spirit” were God in this verse it would most certainly be nonsensical but if it were God’s holy motivating force, then it makes perfect sense. Then, too, while some Bible texts say that the spirit speaks, other texts show that this was actually done through humans or angels. (Matthew 10:19, 20; Acts 4:24, 25; 28:25; Hebrews 2:2) The action of the spirit in such instances is like that of radio waves transmitting messages from one person to another far away. In a large number of cases the expression “holy spirit” appears in the original Greek without the article, thus indicating its lack of personality. Examples: Ac 6:5; 7:55; 8:15, 17, 19; 9:17; 11:24; 13:9, 52; 19:2; Ro 9:1; 14:17; 15:13, 16, 19; 1Co 12:3; Heb 2:4; 6:4; 2Pe 1:21; Jude 20, At Matthew 28:19 reference is made to “the name . . . of the holy spirit.” But the word “name” does not always mean a personal name, either in Greek or in English. When we say “in the name of the law,” we are not referring to a person. We mean that which the law stands for, its authority. Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament says: “The use of name (onoma) here is a common one in the Septuagint and the papyri for power or authority.” So baptism ‘in the name of the holy spirit’ recognizes the authority of the spirit, that it is from God and functions by divine will. Jesus spoke of the holy spirit as a “helper,” and he said it would teach, guide, and speak. (John 14:16, 26; 16:13) The Greek word he used for helper (pa·ra´kle·tos) is in the masculine gender. So when Jesus referred to what the helper would do, he used masculine personal pronouns. (John 16:7, 8) On the other hand, when the neuter Greek word for spirit (pneu´ma) is used, the neuter pronoun “it” is properly employed. Most Trinitarian translators hide this fact, as the Catholic New American Bible admits regarding John 14:17: “The Greek word for ‘Spirit’ is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English |
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23 | KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94956 | ||
Hi Hank, The way the Bible uses the Hebrew word for spirit [ru’ach] tells us what it is. The following study of pertinent verses will thus present the Bible’s definition. We are introduced to God’s [“spirit” (Hebrew, ru´ach)] at Genesis 1:2 where it states that it was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters.” What was it doing? Was [ru’ach]just an uncontrolled wind merely blowing on the surface of the waters? Wind is a force that is not only invisible but powerful, as powerful hurricanes testify. Electricity too, is a controlled, invisible, powerful force that accomplishes a variety of functions for man. Both of these forces are creations of God. Was [ru’ach] uncontrolled or controlled wind blowing on the surface of the waters? Certainly not in this case! Almighty God had such total control of this [ru’ach] in shaping the earth that it’s outcome was exactly what he wanted. How else does Almighty God Jehovah use this [ru’ach] so that we can understand exactly what it is? He uses his [ru’ach’ or spirit to enlighten those who serve him. David prayed: “Teach me to do your will, for you are my God. Your spirit [ru´ach] is good; may it lead me in the land of uprightness.” (Psalm 143:10) When 70 capable men were appointed to help Moses, God said to him: “I shall have to take away some of the spirit [ru´ach] that is upon you and place it upon them.” Numbers 11:17. Now in the Greek the word for God’s holy spirit is from [pneu´ma].” Bible prophecy was recorded when men of God were “borne along by holy spirit (a holy force, pneu’ma) (2 Peter 1:20, 21) In this way the Bible was “inspired of God,” the Greek word for which is The·o´pneu·stos, meaning “God-breathed.” (2 Timothy 3:16) And this invisible, holy, powerful [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] guided certain people to see visions or to have prophetic dreams. 2 Samuel 23:2; Joel 2:28, 29; Luke 1:67; Acts 1:16; 2:32, 33. This [pneu’ma] impelled or moved Jesus to go into the wilderness after his baptism. (Mark 1:12) This [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] was like a fire within God’s servants, causing them to be energized. And this [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] enabled them to speak out boldly and courageously.—Micah 3:8; Acts 7:55-60; 18:25; Romans 12:11; 1 Thessalonians 5:19. By this [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] , God carries out his judgments on men and nations. (Isaiah 30:27, 28; 59:18, 19) And this [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] can reach everywhere, acting for people or against them.—Psalm 139:7-12 God’s [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] can also supply “power beyond what is normal” to those who serve him. (2 Corinthians 4:7) This enables them to endure trials of faith or to do things they could not otherwise do. For example, regarding Samson, Judges 14:6 relates: “The [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] of Yahweh seized on him, and though he had no weapon in his hand he tore the lion in pieces.” (JB) Did a divine person actually enter or seize Samson, manipulating his body to do what he did? No, it was really as the TEV translations says, “the power of the LORD [that] made Samson strong.” The Bible says that when Jesus was baptized, holy spirit came down upon him appearing like a dove, not like a human form. (Mark 1:10) This [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] of God enabled Jesus to heal the sick and raise the dead. As the JB translations at Luke 5:17 says: “The Power of the Lord [God] was behind his [Jesus’] works of healing. God’s [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] also empowered the disciples of Jesus to do miraculous things. Acts 2:1-4 relates that the disciples were assembled together at Pentecost when “suddenly there occurred from heaven a noise just like that of a rushing stiff breeze, . . . and they all became filled with [ru’ach] [pneu’ma] and started to speak with different tongues, just as the spirit was granting them to make utterance.” What were they filled with? Were they filled with God in the form of the Holy Spirit? Or were they filled with God’s holy impelling force that accomplishes his purpose? |
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24 | Introducing the English Standard Version | NT general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 94949 | ||
Hi Hank, An oration of such eloquence deserves nothing less than much admiration and praise. I am sure that your command of the English language is most envied by not only myself but others that appreciate God’s Word. Truthfinder |
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25 | KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94836 | ||
Hi Hank, Please enlighten me, as I wasn't aware of making any inaccuracies in any of my posts. I may have some though and if so, I will gladly apologized, adjust my thinking and extend words of gratitude. Truthfinder |
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26 | What is Nephilim? | Gen 6:4 | Truthfinder | 94803 | ||
Hi BradK, Your answer differs from the three most likely scholarly conclusions. From what did you derive your sub position? Truthfinder |
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27 | KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94795 | ||
Hi Pastor Glenn, When you write something without any proof, I call it assertion. I have no problem with asserting per se. Now I do have a problem with you asserting that the person the Father Jehovah, is one and the same as the person Son Jesus. The dogma of the Trinity itself states that God is “one God in three Persons.” Each is said to be without beginning, having existed for eternity. Each is said to be almighty, with each neither greater nor lesser than the others. These different "persons", have names, and only the Father's name is Jehovah. Why are you making the different "person's" names the same. I don't believe that that is what the bishops nor Constantine at the Council of Nicaea ever said. If I am wrong please show me. The nature of Jesus was settled but the different persons still had different names. Truthfinder |
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28 | What was Jesus doing in the earth 3 days | Matthew | Truthfinder | 94739 | ||
Hi Hank, Great thoughts. I like them and hope you do not think that I am guilty of doing those things. I too, have no problem with God's ability to have accomplished what he did in a literal 24 hour period. Let's give him credit for that. I desire to know from all evidence(his creation and scripture) what he has actually done. Truthfinder |
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29 | What was Jesus doing in the earth 3 days | Matthew | Truthfinder | 94713 | ||
Hi Hank, As I already stated, "the Bible is not a science workbook", thus science questions are addressed from conclusions drawn from observation of creation. In reagards to the length of God's creative days, what conclusion have you drawn? Truthfinder |
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30 | Do Angels have Genders? Male and Female? | Matt 22:30 | Truthfinder | 94620 | ||
Hi Christian24, My post answers the question, "Do angels have gender?" Clearly they do not. Please see my posts to Searcher also for Matthew Henry's commentary) Please show me why you think Michael is male. As a spirit being he (notice I used the masculine pronoun "he" for Michael as does the Bible but that does not mean he is male) cannot be male as they have no gender. Different gender is a creation of God for his creatures to procreate. Angels do not procreate unless they materialize as humans then they can and do have gender. Since the flood of Noah's day, they no longer have that privilege. Truthfinder |
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31 | The truth in Revelation? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94606 | ||
Hi Radioman2, No comment? That's alright. I just noticed in the previous post you did not acknowledge that God gave the revelation to Jesus. Yes, the scripture does, by saying, "which God gave Him". Do you see what I'm getting at? All through the Greek scriptures, a clear distinction between "God" and "Jesus" is made. Truthfinder |
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32 | Do Angels have Genders? Male and Female? | Matt 22:30 | Truthfinder | 94577 | ||
Hi EdB, I appreciate your conviction and agree with you that we can only arrive at that conclusion by reasoning on the scriptures. It was interesting though in arguing the point. Until next time. Truthfinder |
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33 | The truth in Revelation? | Rev 1:1 | Truthfinder | 94552 | ||
Hi Radioman2, Do you perhaps have a thought on this first verse of Revelation chapter? Who gave who the vision? I don't believe what you wrote is what is said. Please explain it to me. Truthfinder |
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34 | Do Angels have Genders? Male and Female? | Matt 22:30 | Truthfinder | 94550 | ||
Hi EdB, The phrase "they do not marry" of Matthew 22:30 is commented on by Matthew Henry’s Commentary and concurs with the reasoning I presented. It says, “But, in the resurrection, there is no occasion for marriage; whether in glorified bodies there will be any distinction of sexes.” This is a well thought out conclusion. In it’s entirety the commentary makes explanation. It says, “It is not like the state we are now in upon earth; They neither marry, nor are given in marriage. In our present state marriage is necessary; it was instituted in innocency; whatever intermission or neglect there has been of other institutions, this was never laid aside, nor will be till the end of time. In the old world, they were marrying, and giving in marriage; the Jews in Babylon, when cut off from other ordinances, yet were bid to take them wives, Jer. 29:6. All civilized nations have had a sense of the obligation of the marriage covenant; and it is requisite for the gratifying of the desires, and recruiting the deficiencies, of the human nature. But, in the resurrection, there is no occasion for marriage; whether in glorified bodies there will be any distinction of sexes some too curiously dispute (the ancients are divided in their opinions about it); but, whether there will be a distinction or not, it is certain that there will be no conjunction; where God will be all in all, there needs no other meet-help; the body will be spiritual, and there will be in it no carnal desires to be gratified: when the mystical body is completed, there will be no further occasion to seek a godly seed, which was one end of the institution of marriage,” Here he tells us that there will be no male/female but like the angels. As you know, the purpose of God’s making the two sexes was for producing offspring. Another line of reasoning is the fact that merely referring to God or angels in the masculine gender is a grammar characteristic of that language. Examples found in the Bible and everyday usage today abound where the pronouns and nouns are of a certain gender but not necessarily literally of that gender, Las casas in Spanish is in the feminine gender but certainly does not mean that the houses are female. Likewise angels in English are in the masculine but that does not mean they are males. They are spirit creatures that were created without the privilege of procreating. Before the deluge of Noah’s day, angels had to materialize in order to procreate, to have gender. But as angels, they could not cohabit, procreate, marry nor have gender. Truthfinder |
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35 | Do Angels have Genders? Male and Female? | Matt 22:30 | Truthfinder | 94506 | ||
Hi Christian24, May I ask you a question? The words “apostles,” “prophets,” “evangelizers,” “shepherds,” and “teachers” are all in the masculine gender (Eph 4:8, 11) does that mean that only men qualify for these positions? Also since God is always refered to in the masculine gender does that mean his sex is male? Truthfinder |
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36 | What does inspiration mean? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Truthfinder | 94223 | ||
Well said Tim, We know that God is spoken of as accomplishing work with his “finger(s),” such as writing the Ten Commandments on stone tablets (Ex 31:18; De 9:10), and I am sure you too watched the movie. You mention in your last paragraph that "always presented. . ." or as I understand your thought that God's writings were "always" performed by "man". But think about the account recorded in Ex 31:18 and De 9:10. Did Jehovah God have this written by someone other than Moses? Something to consider. Truthfinder |
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37 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 94064 | ||
Hi Dairleader5, Yes! Eccl 3:18-22 is an eye opener. I understand it to mean that the “spirit” (Heb., ru´ach; Gr., pneu´ma), or life-force, of man is not distinct from the life-force in animals, since it states that “they all have but one spirit .” Thank you. And too, I agree with Emmaus that they will never be granted immortality since they are not resurrected as humans can be. Of course, there is much more to say about this subject, maybe at a later time. But just this one point, Emmaus and others say "have" a soul. I understand saying "are" a soul fits the definition, and "have" spirit, speaking of animals and humans. Truthfinder |
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38 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93986 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Please re-read my question. Do animals have a spirit (Heb.ruach Gr. pneuma)? There is a big difference between ruach and nephesh in the Hebrew and likewise between pneuma and psykhe in the Greek. Truthfinder |
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39 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93974 | ||
Hi Emmaus, I posted just a day or so ago, the Bible's definition of death. Did you get to read it? Also, I showed what the soul is. "Adam came to be a living soul". Satan told Eve that they would not die. Yet, if one believes that the soul does not die, then Satan's assertion was correct. I showed the numerous scriptures that shows us the Bible indeed teaches that "man" who is himself a "soul" dies and awaits a resurrection. His spirit returns to God, until he (the dead) are resurrected. Animals too are souls but are not resurrected. I have a question for you. Do animals have a spirit? Truthfinder |
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40 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93963 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Of course not? Why do you say that? You mention Paul as an early maryr? Yes, indeed. And: Antipas (Re 2:13) James (Ac 12:2) Justin Martyr. For refusing to worship pagan gods, second-century Christians were considered atheistic. “We are not atheists,” countered Justin, “worshipping as we do the Maker of the universe . . . Our teacher of these things is Jesus Christ . . . He is the Son of the true God.” Regarding idolatry, Justin said: “They make what they call a god; which we consider not only senseless, but to be even insulting to God . . . What infatuation! that dissolute men should be said to fashion and make gods for your worship.”—Isaiah 44:14-20. Polycarp. Polycarp’s oversight of the congregation began in the challenging years of the foretold apostasy. (2 Thessalonians 2:1-3) And of course, Stephen (Ac 6, 7) There is no doubt, that they all are in heaven, having been resurrected as was our Lord Jesus, even being given immortality. Yes, Emmaus I agree with you. But the "church" you speak of is not what these ones were a part of. They were part of the true "congregation" that Jesus set up. Truthfinder |
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