Results 141 - 160 of 678
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | The Word of God is Perfect. | 1 Cor 13:10 | gracefull | 92338 | ||
1 Corinthians 13:8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. 13 And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity. So knowledge has passed away? But then 'face to face'....? You now see face to face? No, while I agree the Word is infallable, WE do not see perfectly. If this were fulfilled, we, the body of Christ would be operating in perfect harmony. You can't find two believers who agree perfectly...No my brother, that which is perfect has not come. We still see through a glass darkly. Most who use this verse to prove cessation will turn around and use the first part...see through a glass darkly...as if it is still true. Either we SEE FACE TO FACE or we still view through the human fallacy of flesh, and the carnal nature... that which is perfect will be us glorified in the presence of God. God bless |
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142 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92336 | ||
"That is the context, you keep on leaving out verses 15-17." No, I have stated that these verses are dealing with discipline. You said... "Moreover, you still have not shown me where "prayer" is in the context of this passage ... do not cite man ... cite only Scripture." When did I 'cite' man? I did cite scripture, but you can not hear. The notes were my understanding of the scriptures which IS part of a Bible study is it not? You have done so quite frequently and so far you have not given scripture for some of YOUR conclusions. Such as Paul using the foreign languages on his many missionary journeys...This is assumption based on your conclusions, not scriptural fact. Where do I find 'prayer' in this text? Any two agree on earth about anything they may ASK. Asking is praying,asking who? The prayers are directed to God because He is the one who responds. This is prayer. 19 "Again I say to you, that if two of you AGREE on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst." Also, if you will notice apparently the NASB translaters agree because their 'header for this text is Discipline and Prayer. As for the remainder of the chapter it deals with forgiveness. "I believe there is at least one OT cross reference (Deu 19:15-17)." Yes, this is applicable to verses 15-17. God bless |
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143 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92325 | ||
Not exactly Searcher, That was your statement, ""The context is discipline ... tho I have seen others say it is prayer, service and other things. That would mean He would not be present unless (only) two or three were there ... He would not be there if it was just you ... or more than three." This text is dealing with both discipline AND prayer. The scripture actually says, 18 "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven. 19 "Again I say to you, that if two of you AGREE on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst." You said, "That would mean He would not be present unless (only) two or three were there ... He would not be there if it was just you ... or more than three." No, when scripture is rightly divided we know He promised to never leave or forsake us and that the Holy Spirit would abide in us. So what did He mean? I believe the answer can be found in the following verses.. Ecclesiastes 4:11 Again, if two lie together, then they have heat: but how can one be warm alone? 12 And if one prevail against him, two shall withstand him; and a threefold cord is not quickly broken. When two or more agree in prayer, their prayer is much more powerful..why? because they stand together and are less likely to fall prey to the lies of the adversary. God bless |
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144 | Sleep speaking in tongues? | Acts | gracefull | 92322 | ||
Hi 4given, Let me ask you a question.. 1.What do you believe scripture teaches concerning the Holy Spirit infilling? 2. Did you ask for the Holy Spirit infilling? This could be either verbal or from a prayer of the heart, but either you would be aware of. It may be better if we talk via e-mail. I would like to hear your testimony. franh@tvsa.com Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the Spirit he speaketh mysteries. God bless |
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145 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92319 | ||
... Paul says there should no no speaking in tongues, unless there is interpretation, the speaker should be silent (14:28) Yes, in the service except one can speak between himself and God 1 Corinthians 14:28 28 but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God. ... and tongues is still a less gift when it is interpreted. Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying. I would have to review English grammer but I believe you are incorrect here. The 'Unless' goes with the greater ie 'greater...unless'. Purhaps Tim is around and he can shed some light on this. This would actually make perfect sense in light of the rest of the chapter. Paul is stating that prophesy is greater than tongues due to the fact that tongues can't be understood, but with an interpreter they can be understood. But unless someone can toss in the English grammer rule here, we are at an impass... "You said ... "According to the above verses (14:22-24) there is no indication that Paul is speaking af varying languages. He says when the unlearned or unbelievers come in what will they think? ... It is when all speak tongues, the unlearned, or unbelievers will think you are mad." 1 Corinthians 14:21 In the Law it is written, "BY MEN OF STRANGE TONGUES AND BY THE LIPS OF STRANGERS I WILL SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE, AND EVEN SO THEY WILL NOT LISTEN TO ME," says the Lord. Unless one were taught that this is refering to foreign known languages for foreigners within a congregation, one would not get this message. But that is what you believe, so be it. Therefore the gift of interpretation is the same as translation, without knowing the language. Interpretation requires both to be languages, with parts of speech, etc. I see the subtle difference, but you do not...so be it. God bless |
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146 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92258 | ||
"I see the whole chapter about being in church ... plus, I think he spoke in tongues, to others, outside the church. As he went on his missionary journeys and established the churches, before they were churches, I think he had to speak the native language, even if Greek was known." Where does scripture say this? Then, once established, there wasn't a need to him to speak ... they had their pastors ... and when someone came in, there may have been a need for someone to speak in their tongue and it be interpeted for the church. 1 Corinthians 13:9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. No my friend. We still see through a glass darkly until we see Him face to face. 1 Corinthians 13:12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. God bless |
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147 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92257 | ||
"The context is discipline ... tho I have seen others say it is prayer, service and other things. That would mean He would not be present unless (only) two or three were there ... He would not be there if it was just you ... or more than three." TEXT COPIED FROM BIBLE GATEWAY SCRIPTURE SEARCH OF THE TEXT IN THE NASB: Discipline and Prayer 15 "(1) If your brother sins[1] , go and show him his fault in private; if he listens to you, you have won your brother. 16 "But if he does not listen to you, take one or two more with you, so that BY THE MOUTH OF TWO OR THREE WITNESSES EVERY FACT MAY BE CONFIRMED. 17 "If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, let him be to you as a Gentile and a tax collector. 18 "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven. 19 "Again I say to you, that if two of you agree on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst." God bless |
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148 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92240 | ||
Part 2 I would agree that prophesy is greater than tongues due to the fact that one prophesy edifies the body and tongues without interpretation, does not. What I said was, "Look at the second part of this verse. Let me paraphrase to convey the interpretation..Greater is the message of prophesy (because it is clearly understood) than tongues UNLESS the tongues are interpreted..then they are equal with prophesy because the message in tongues is clearly understood. But what I want you to see is that Paul said UNLESS meaning all tongues may not be interpreted." Paul clearly says that prophesy is greater UNLESS tongues are interpreted..implying that tongues with interpretation are equal or at least reasonably comparable with prophesy when the interpretation is given. You said... "The gift of tongues IS NOT the only administered by the Holy Spirit at His will ... so why would Paul have even needed to write this letter of correction ... because I have already said ... they were incorrect in the application." You may be correct on this point. I do not understand this but that may be because when the Holy Spirit uses me with the gift of tongues, He clearly indicates His will to do so. 1 Corinthians 12:7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal. You said... You ask "If it is a miraculous language with someone present who know the language..why is there the need for the 'gift of interpretation'?" ... It is because the rest (most) of the people didn't understand the foreign tongue ... only a some did. When some message was spoken, let us say in the language of the Medes, the rest of the church didn't understand ... so Greek (or their main language) was also spoken, by interpretation. If there was no interpretation ... the rest of the church would not be edified. 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. 23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad? 24 But if all prophesy, and there come in one that believeth not, or one unlearned, he is convinced of all, he is judged of all: According to the above verses there is no indication that Paul is speaking af varying languages. He says when the unlearned or unbelievers come in what will they think? Translate:to express in another language, systematically retaining the original sense. Interpret:To explain to ones self the meaning of.2. To expound the significance of.3. To represent or render the meaning of.... Now while admittedly these two are close there is one main difference..If you speak in my language I will translate accurately, not interpret. One who interprets works as a third person..you speak, I understand because I speak the same language, then I translate to the croud. But if the message is for me, if this is the gospel preached in my language miraculously(as on Pentecost) there would be no need to interpret to otheres. If what you say is true, the word of choice would be translate..but again, Paul makes no language distinctions, on unbelievers and unlearned. You said... Matthew 18:20 does say "For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them" However, again it doesn't say more than three. Moreover, this verse has been taken out of context, by many, not just you. It is about church discipline (vv 15-20). The Lord is present in a similar situation in the OT (Due 19:15-17 My exact words were, "The gift of tongues is a different manifestation of the Holy Spirit, to be spoken where there are two or more and should be interpreted." Matthew 18 "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven. 19 "Again I say to you, that if two of you agree on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst." Actually in context it is addressing prayer. So int the future I will use the word gathered in service. What about 1 Corinthians 14:18-19, specifically the fact that Paul makes a distinction between speaking in tongues and speaking in tongues in service? 18 I thank God, I speak in tongues more than you all; 19 however, in the church I desire to speak five words with my mind so that I may instruct others also, rather than ten thousand words in a tongue. |
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149 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92232 | ||
Part 1 Hi Searcher, You said, "I think in 14:5 Paul is "tongue in cheek" ... because he already said we need each part (12:12 ff)... and that not everyone speaks in tongues (12:30)." Explain 'tongue in cheek' so I can be sure I understand what you are saying. 5 Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying. "Is prophecy and tongues equal? No according to 12:27-31. Prophets is second ... tongues is second to last." I would agree that prophesy is greater than tongues due to the fact that one prophesy edifies the body and tongues without interpretation, does not. What I said was, "Look at the second part of this verse. Let me paraphrase to convey the interpretation..Greater is the message of prophesy (because it is clearly understood) than tongues UNLESS the tongues are interpreted..then they are equal with prophesy because the message in tongues is clearly understood. But what I want you to see is that Paul said UNLESS meaning all tongues may not be interpreted." Paul clearly says that prophesy is greater UNLESS tongues are interpreted..implying that tongues with interpretation are equal or at least reasonably comparable with prophesy when the interpretation is given. You said... "The gift of tongues IS NOT the only administered by the Holy Spirit at His will ... so why would Paul have even needed to write this letter of correction ... because I have already said ... they were incorrect in the application." You may be correct on this point. I do not understand this but that may be because when the Holy Spirit uses me with the gift of tongues, He clearly indicates His will to do so. 1 Corinthians 12:7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal. You said... You ask "If it is a miraculous language with someone present who know the language..why is there the need for the 'gift of interpretation'?" ... It is because the rest (most) of the people didn't understand the foreign tongue ... only a some did. When some message was spoken, let us say in the language of the Medes, the rest of the church didn't understand ... so Greek (or their main language) was also spoken, by interpretation. If there was no interpretation ... the rest of the church would not be edified. 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. 23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad? 24 But if all prophesy, and there come in one that believeth not, or one unlearned, he is convinced of all, he is judged of all: According to the above verses there is no indication that Paul is speaking af varying languages. He says when the unlearned or unbelievers come in what will they think? Translate:to express in another language, systematically retaining the original sense. Interpret:To explain to ones self the meaning of.2. To expound the significance of.3. To represent or render the meaning of.... Now while admittedly these two are close there is one main difference..If you speak in my language I will translate accurately, not interpret. One who interprets works as a third person..you speak, I understand because I speak the same language, then I translate to the croud. But if the message is for me, if this is the gospel preached in my language miraculously(as on Pentecost) there would be no need to interpret to otheres. |
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150 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | gracefull | 92209 | ||
Hi Searcher, This was in response to Ken's question/statement "What happened in the room where the 120 twenty met? Did they have Bibles? What were they doing? Shouldn't we do the same yet you'll be hard pressed to see that atmosphere of praise and worship in most churches today must less be taught as something we should be about." And Justme's question, ' Is tongues a gift, that if a new Christian were isolated and left alone, with only a Bible, would this person speak in tongues with out being taught, or observation of others speaking in tongues? Thank you for honest answers. justme The subject was whether one can or would receive the Holy Spirit baptism with speaking in tongues if they were not taught to do so. Ken was pointing out that the disciples did not have Bibles. My point was that the disciples had received clear instruction concerning the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. They were taught in John 14 that the Holy Spirit would be sent and His purpose was defined. Luke 24:49 And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high. God bless |
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151 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | gracefull | 92148 | ||
Hi Ken, Read John 14, specifically verses 16-31. Also read Luke 24: 48 And ye are witnesses of these things. 49 And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high. 50 And he led them out as far as to Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them. The disciples were instructed to go to Jerusalem and tarry waiting for the Holy Spirit. They did as they were instructed. However after that the Holy spirit was received by the laying on of hands, and also by the preaching of the gospel(Peter). So the answer is yes they had instructions from the Word, Jesus. God bless |
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152 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92126 | ||
Hi Searcher, They are different in function, but not different in meaning. By that I mean both chapters are speaking of and teaching about the proper use of tongues. For instance look at 1 Corinthians 14:5 5 Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying. Look at the second part of this verse. Let me paraphrase to convey the interpretation..Greater is the message of prophesy (because it is clearly understood) than tongues UNLESS the tongues are interpreted..then they are equal with prophesy because the message in tongues is clearly understood. But what I want you to see is that Paul said UNLESS meaning all tongues may not be interpreted. 1 Corinthians 12:10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues: Now look at verse 14 and 15 14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. 15 What is the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and I will sing with the mind also. Paul says,' I will do both pray in tongues (in the Spirit) and I will pray with the mind...' Verse 18 and 19 18 I thank God, I speak in tongues more than you all; 19 however, in the church I desire to speak five words with my mind so that I may instruct others also, rather than ten thousand words in a tongue. Notice the HOWEVER.. Paul is saying that he speaks in tongues but in a church service it is preferable to speak either with words clearly understood or with tongues as long as there is an interpreter. Note 14:27 limits it to "at the most three" and "one at a time" ... not "two or more", as you said. 26 What is the outcome then, brethren? When you assemble, each one has a psalm, has a teaching, has a revelation, has a tongue, has an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification. 27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, it should be by two or at the most three, and each in turn, and one must interpret; 28 but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God. Searcher, if there was only the gift of tongues administered by the Holy Spirit at His will, why would Paul have even needed to write this letter of correction? Was it not to teach these believers the difference in praying, or singing in the spirit for personal edification and speaking through the 'gift' of tongues with the 'gift' of interpretation present? Secondly, if it is a miraculous language with someone present who know the language..why is there the need for the 'gift of interpretation'? Note 14:27 limits it to "at the most three" and "one at a time" ... not "two or more", as you said. I apologize Searcher, I was refering to Matthew 18:20 For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them. See verse 26 says "When you assemble"? My stament should have read, When two or more are gathered the gift of tongues can operate provided there is an interpreter. Sorry for the incomplete statement. But we won't be contentious. If you are asking because you are seeking, we can talk more. If you are asking to be contentious, we can close the discussion now as agreeing to disagree peacefully. God bless |
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153 | Wo hardend Pharoh's Heart | Rom 9:1 | gracefull | 92091 | ||
Sal, Good clarification. Thanks God bless |
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154 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | gracefull | 92090 | ||
Joan, Good post..hopefully someone here will read and 'HEAR'. God bless |
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155 | Having yet not knowing one has | Romans | gracefull | 92086 | ||
Hi George, No offence taken..however I would like to comment on two of your statements. First "I don’t even need any of the “so called” details of what she said." I would like to remind you that you said, "Read josiebible’s response posted Fri 08/1/03, 11:49pm if you will. There is meaning therein that is as yet indiscernible to this meager beggar. Your comments thereon will be welcomed." Otherwise, I would not have made any further observations... In reference to 'speaking in church' the verse in 1 Corinthians 14:28 says "but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God." Please note the second part of that verse. I too prefer discernment. God bless |
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156 | Do Jesus and Paul agree on salv by faith | NT general Archive 1 | gracefull | 92025 | ||
"The bible never mentions "ALONE". If it did it would contradict itself. We are saved when we follow exactly what the bible says to do and be sure not to leave nothing out. See, the church i.e. the body of christ was never set up by men, but God, so therefore the church doesn't save you, it is Christ that saves you." That's law. Following exxactly what the Bible says does not produce the new birth in one's life. The Holy Spirit does that when someone repents and accepts Jesus as saviour. Then and only then can we fulfill the whole law... Matthew 22:35-37 God bless |
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157 | Wo hardend Pharoh's Heart | Rom 9:1 | gracefull | 92021 | ||
Hi Sal, i noticed you used the first part of this verse to prove that we can't possibly understand God. How does the second part of that verse bare out this fact? 1 Corinthians 2:16 16 For WHO HAS KNOWN THE MIND OF THE LORD, THAT HE WILL INSTRUCT HIM? But we have the mind of Christ. God bless |
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158 | "If" small word, BIG DEAL | Rom 8:17 | gracefull | 92019 | ||
Matthew 5:12 Rejoice, and be exceeding glad: for great is your reward in heaven: for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you. God bless |
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159 | Joann ... Why not use your gift ? | Romans | gracefull | 92010 | ||
"Your mind is unfruitful when praying in tongues, because your mind is not use in the process and there is no benefit." What is the answer to the question? Searcher, scripture states that WHEN PRAYING IN TONGUES...the mind is unfruitful.... First, not IF you THINK you are praying in tongues but WHEN PRAYING in tongues... Second, the mind is not the spirit so although the mind may not benefit, the spirit man can...The Holy Spirit 'speaketh mysteries'. 1 Corinthians 14:2 2 For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries. Now, these verses state that tongues is a fact, and that tongues is the Holy Spirit speaking, thus it is the will of God. If you believe Paul is saying tongues is unprofitable while he is also saying they are a fact you have a delima. Why did God ordain tongues is they are valuless as you imply? Because the above verse clearly states they are real and odviously God's wisdom is not questionable. Why would you resist what is God's will? God bless |
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160 | Joann ... Why not use your gift ? | Romans | gracefull | 92008 | ||
Hi Josie, You said.. "I do know about 1 Cor 14. The way I understand this gift is that God seeks people to worship in spirit and truth and He loves for us to pray in tongues. When we speak in tongues in a Church it must be directed from the Holy Spirit and if there is not an interpreter than that is proof that that person should not have spoken out." This is for the most part correct. Your statement that if there is no interprer the pweson spoke in error may or may not be accurate. 1 Corinthians 12:10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues: Simply because a message is not interpreted does not mean the message should not have been given. The manifestation of the gifts of the Holy Spirit are subject to the person. One can refuse or become uncertain and fearful and refuse to follow the unction of the Holy Spirit. the reason I point this out is that should the Holy Spirit decide to gift you with the gift of tongues, Satan could trick you. The person who has the 'gift' KNOWS it. The Holy Spirit will make this clear and one will not base their faith on whether someone responds or not, but rather on the voice of the Holy Spirit. What you said can be true but is not a 'rule'. Any questions? God bless |
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