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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167137 | ||
Greetings Adtcross! We could play dualing quotes, but that wasn't my intention. :-) I was simply trying to point out that the word can be and often is translated as 'not believe.' For instance, the NAS does translates it once as 'not believe', while the RSV translates it three times as 'unbelief' out of 14 occurances. Clearly, there is not much difference in meaning between the two either lexically or contextually. Thanks for the response my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | atdcross | 167152 | ||
Hi Tim. Does that mean you think my position is warranted? |
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3 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167157 | ||
Greetings Adtcross! I'm not sure I understand your position well enough to judge it. :-) I was simply pointing out that any position based upon a hard fast distinction between 'disobey' and 'unbelief' might be shaky since the word can mean either. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | atdcross | 167170 | ||
Tim, As per Vincent's quote: "More correctly as Rev., 'obeyeth not'; disbelief is regarded in its active manifestation, disobedience." As such, and warranted with other language reference works, it seems to me that there is a distinction between the Greek words in question with respect to John 3:36. As such, from your comment, it seems that you disagree. No problem; I just wanted clarification. Thanks. |
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