Results 1 - 10 of 10
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are these essentials for Salvation? | Bible general Archive 3 | atdcross | 167069 | ||
Repentance involves not only the acknowledgement that we are sinners, but a complete reversal of lifestyle from disobedience to God to obedience. To "believe with your heart" is to repent; obedience to God is the "bringing of fruit worthy of repentance." Confessing with one's mouth without this repentance has no saving value (as also repentance without the public confession has none either). |
||||||
2 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | justme | 167086 | ||
Atdcross: Thank you for responding. With your statement, how does John 3:16 fit in? Would you give some Scripture to prove your statements | ||||||
3 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | atdcross | 167100 | ||
As I stated in another note, repentance is assumed in John 3:16, cf. vs.20-21. Note also v.36. It first says, "Whoever believes...has eternal life"; however, the converse is not, "Whoever disbelieves" but "Whoever disobeys" (TEV). It is interesting to note that the contrast is made not between "believing" and "not believing" (as one might assume in veiw of v.16) but between "believing" and "disobedience", which, as I understand it, assumes the necessary activity of repentance for faith in the former and being unrepentant through "disobedience" in the latter, resulting in the divine displeasure (to put it mildly). |
||||||
4 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167105 | ||
Greetings Atdcross! The word used in John 3:36 can also be translated as 'not believe'. This would actually make more sense in the context of the chapter since John constantly contrasts 'believe' and 'not believe'. This contrast is found in the following verses: John 3:12 - " I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?" John 3:18 - "Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son." John 3:36 would then make the same contrast. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
5 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | atdcross | 167134 | ||
Good day Tim, Not being familiar with the Greek of the NT, I am forced to rely on scholars. In the first place, looking at the Strong's, I notice that in John 3:36, I notice: 1. The Greek word for the first instance of "believeth" (KJV) is a different Greek word from its use in the second instance for "believeth" (KJV). 2. The Greek word used in 3:12,18 is the same as that used in the first instance in v.36, which, again, is different from the second instance, "believeth" (KJV). 3. Some of the popular and more accurate translations have "disobey" (RSV, NASV, TEV, cf. less popular known, Moffatt, Revised English Bible). In the second place, Vincent states, "More correctly as Rev., 'obeyeth not'. disbelief is regarded in its active manifestation, disobedience" (Word Studies; cf. Linguistic/Exegetical Key to the Greek NT; Robertson Word Pictures). Mayfield agrees that "he who does not obey" is the "better translation" and comments, "The opposite of faith is actually 'refusal to obey'" (Beacon Bible Commentary; cf. "The Gospel an Epistles of John", F.F. Bruce). Notice that Michaels writes, "The last verse of the chapter brings the reader back to the point reached in verses 18-21" (NIBC), which is what I suggested (cf. EBC). What Leon Morris asserts in his NICNT commentary on John is very instructive - as is also his footnote with reference to the BAGD - and answers directly to your asertion that the word translated as "disobey" can also be translated as "not believe." In conclusion, I do not go along with your suggestion because: 1. (a) Words are different. To be more accurate in translation, I will go along with the TEV. (b) Context does not demand what you assert but rather suggests, especially with vs. 16-21, that "disobeys" is the better translation of the Greek word. 2. The commentaries agree that the word translated "disobey" (TEV) emphasizes the activity of faith (something that I attempted to point out but they said it better). To me, it seems this emphasis is lost if translated merely as "disbelieves". 3. The contrast made in vs.12,18 is that of believing and disobedience when seen in its context, especially in light of vs.19-21. Their condemnation is "because their deeds were evil." In conclusion, if disobedience is the activity of unbelief, it seems to me that repentance - a truning to obedience - is, as I have suggested, the activity of faith. If your translation be insisted on, it should be with the understanding that an activity is emphasized, that is, the activity of diobedience. |
||||||
6 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167137 | ||
Greetings Adtcross! We could play dualing quotes, but that wasn't my intention. :-) I was simply trying to point out that the word can be and often is translated as 'not believe.' For instance, the NAS does translates it once as 'not believe', while the RSV translates it three times as 'unbelief' out of 14 occurances. Clearly, there is not much difference in meaning between the two either lexically or contextually. Thanks for the response my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
7 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | DocTrinsograce | 167139 | ||
Dear Brother Tim, I see two words translated unbelief: apithia and apistia. What is the difference? If the reveals this, can you tell us if unbelief is simply the absence of belief, or is it a selection of the opposite of a piece of information? Thank you for your instruction of us in regards to the Greek. In Him, Doc |
||||||
8 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167147 | ||
Greetings Doc! This is one of those interesting examples of how words can take on meanings over time that may have not been original. 'Apithia' is disobedience. However, the ultimate act of disobedience is to refuse to respond to the Gospel. Thus, the word has also taken on the meaning of unbeliever or unbelief. If Christ commands 'repent', and one refuses, that one is both an unbeliever and disobedient. :-) The verb is only used 14 times in the NT, but several times it is used in contrast to 'believe', which is why many translations have translated it as 'not believe'. Well, time for work! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
9 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | DocTrinsograce | 167148 | ||
Thank you, Brother Tim! So, what is the difference between apithia and apistia? Are they different conjugations or something? In Him, Doc |
||||||
10 | Essentials, where is the proof? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 167156 | ||
Greetings Doc! The 'a' is a negative. So, 'a' 'pistia' is 'no' 'faith'. Apithia is a little tricker. It is based upon a word that means 'persuaded'. So, the negative form can mean 'unpersuaded', 'disobedient', or 'unbeliever'. But, to answer your question, they are entirely two different words with similar meanings under certain circumstances. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||