Results 1 - 5 of 5
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus know all things why marvelled? | NT general Archive 1 | CDBJ | 62976 | ||
I think that the problem that you having with this Verse, Matt. 8:10, is your understanding of the word marvelled. It is a little misleading if one thinks that it means surprised. Matthew 8:10 When Jesus heard it, he marvelled, and said to them that followed, Verily I say unto you, I have not found so great faith, no, not in Israel. The word marveled comes to us from the Greek word THAUMAZO. It can also be translated to have in admiration or admired. |
||||||
2 | Jesus know all things why marvelled? | NT general Archive 1 | jlpangilinan | 62977 | ||
Ok, lets accepted that for a while that it could be translation error. but how about this verse: Mt 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. do you think it is very different from the assessment of Peter that Christ know all things. You maybe telling me that in matt 24:36 Jesus telling this to His desciples as a human and as lower than angels of course that He is not omnicent. But at the time that peter said that Christ know all things Crist still in His human form. God bless, |
||||||
3 | Jesus know all things why marvelled? | NT general Archive 1 | Hank | 62979 | ||
Hello, Johnny. In my post ID #61821 I attempted to answer your original question on this topic, but you are apparently not satisfied with it or the other answers you received before. In post #61821 I suggested kenosis, a reference to the "emptying" of the Son in the Incarnation (See Phil.2:7). This kenosis refers to Jesus' temporary and voluntary giving up of certain divine attributes while He was on the earth..... You have a question regarding Matt.24:36. and ask about the omniscience of Christ. That Christ, in His humiliation (incarnation), was not aware of the time of his second coming is not a denial of His deity, but an evidence of His functional subordination and temporary surrender of certain attributes while living a life of faith and dependence upon the Father. This is what is meant by kenosis. But this kenosis ended with the Risen Christ who now sits on the right hand of God in heaven. Johnny, I do hope this expansion of my former post serves to shed some light on your questions and concerns. I have no further information to offer and no other exegesis of these passages of Scripture. --Hank | ||||||
4 | Jesus know all things why marvelled? | NT general Archive 1 | jlpangilinan | 62983 | ||
No problem with that hank, My question is about the verses let me quoted here again those verses: Joh 21:17 He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee. Jesus saith unto him, Feed my sheep In this very passages, the assessment of peter Christ know all things (this time Christ is still in His human form) Mt 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. In that passages (Christ in His human form) answers that no one know the hours but His father only. What do you think of the assessment of peter? did he made mistake? I hope it is clear now. I am not asking about being the omniscent of Christ in human form my question is about the differences between the assessment of peter against the writing of matthew. God bless |
||||||
5 | Jesus know all things why marvelled? | NT general Archive 1 | Hank | 62988 | ||
Johnny -- The passages in question, one in John's Gospel and the other in Matthew's, are first of all, not related to one another in any real sense other than that they are both in the New Testament. In the passage in John, it is Peter who says to Jesus, "Lord, you know all things." thus acknowledging Christ's Deity. But the issue of the omniscience of the Incarnate Christ or of the accuracy of Peter's "you-know-all-things" observation are not really dealt with in this passage, in my view, and even if they are and I've failed to see it, they are incidental and don't constitute the main point of the passage, which I believe to be as follows: The Lord by his questions is seeking to impress upon Peter his responsibilites demanded by his love for Jesus, exemplified in His commands to feed His lambs, tend His sheep, feed His sheep...... The Matthew passage is quite different from the one in John. Jesus alone is the speaker, the subject matter is eschatology, and He, speaking as the Incarnate Christ, is saying that the Father alone knows the hour of His (Christ's) second coming...... The two passages do not present conflicting teaching regarding the question of the omniscience or kenosis of the Incarnate Christ. Kenosis is a theological word and not unlike most theological words, is extremely complex. To try to comprehend fully the mystery of God becoming flesh, being fully God and fully man, is I believe beyond the scope of the human mind. At all events, I know it is beyond the scope of the mind of the human being who is writing this posting. --Hank | ||||||