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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Taleb | 77198 | ||
mommapbs, You are correct (sort of) that baptism was used in the Old Testament when someone wanted to "convert". And I said "sort of" because it STILL is how one "converts” to Judaism. To answer your 2nd question - yes, the physical action MADE/MAKES them a "Hebrew". Even today, when someone "converts" to Judaism they are “proclaimed” to be the son, or daughter, of Abraham and Sarah. The reason why they become “children” of Abraham is because before God called Abraham to be the father, and Sarah the mother, of the Hebrews, they both were “Gentiles”. They “became” Hebrews. NO convert IS ever called one after they "convert". They are as though they were born into it. That's why so many of them call it "being born again." Interesting, don't you think? Has the purpose of baptism changed is hard to answer. It depends if you mean has God’s purpose changed, or has “the Church’s” purpose changed. God’s remains the same. The church’s – well – we are having a conversation that we wouldn’t be having if it hadn’t changed. Your question: “if you took a white cloth and dipped it in red dye, what kind of cloth is it white or red?” instantly brought to mind one of my favorite, (from thousands) :) promises from God’s precious word “Though MY sins be as scarlet, (red, if you will) they SHALL be made white as snow.” So I guess I will have to give you a “scriptural answer”. The “cloth” God would make white. P.S. I sure appreciate you, mommapds, and you are MOST welcome. Taleb |
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2 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Mommapbs | 77365 | ||
Greetings Taleb! I stumbled upon this web site and would appreciate your comments upon this movement. The address I am sending to you is the main page but please click on the link to baptism in the contents to the left. http://www.graftedin2torah.org/default.htm As I was reading here about the Name of God, it dawned on me to consider how could one call upon God with the Name He gives Moses in Ex 3:14? Comments? |
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3 | When did God change "mode" of baptism? | Bible general Archive 1 | Taleb | 77375 | ||
Mommapbs, good morning. I attempted to find, on two different search engines that “address” that you provided. They both gave me the old song and dance about not finding it, asking if my spelling was correct etc. It sounds like an “interesting” site to visit. I will make a more frugal attempt later. For now I want to “comment” on question concerning Ex 3:14. Hopefully, my “comment” won’t be too hard to follow. Let me state that spellings in translations vary. When someone asks “Who are you?” we respond according to who spoke. If my daughter asked me that, I would say, “Your father.” Throughout my life, I have responded to such “names” as son, brother, cousin, father, grampy, honey, dear, student, teacher, etc. Those are just SOME of who "I AM". Like you and me, God doesn’t limit Himself to “one” name or, more accurately, one “character”. God is EL HAJ (Living God); AND He is KETHER ETZ CHAIM JEHU (The Crown of the Tree of Life); AND HE is ADONAI ‘TSEBAYOTH (Lord of Army Hosts); AND He is BATH ‘KOL (The still small voice); etc. etc. In Exodus 3, it explains how, or in what manner God made His “appearance” to Moses. “In the flame of the burning bush, the Angel of the Lord APPEARED to Moses.” This WAS God. For it states that “God said out of the bush, “I AM THE GOD OF YOUR FATHERS”. In Exodus 6:2-3 God said (and I believe Him to be telling the WHOLE truth, contrary to what “our translators” say previous Scriptures say.) “I am the Lord. I APPEARED unto Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob BY the name of God Almighty (El Shaddai), but My name "the Lord" (Yawheh) was I not know unto them.” In Exodus 3:14 God is merely stating, in the same fashion “justme” states in his profile, “I’m just who I am. What you see is what you get.” The Hebrew “names” that God introduced Himself to Moses in Exodus 3:14 are EHYEH ASHER EHYEH. Our translators say it means I AM “THAT” I AM. Not "exactly". The best way to translate it, for us English speakers to understand, gives you the answer to your question. God is MERELY telling Moses, I AM (whatever I WANT to be) - is what I AM. That is one reason He “appeared” in the burning bush. That helped Moses KNOW God COULD be "whatever". Remember why Moses didn’t get to go into the promise land? He struck the rock, rather than speaking to it. Who WAS the rock? At that time and in that place, God “was exactly what He wanted to be" (“I AM ZUR – the rock”), just as He revealed to Moses in Exodus 3:14. The manna, etc. etc. etc. etc. WAS GOD. Or, if you will, "I AM THE MANNA". In the New Testament. it often “seconds” what I am stating. Jesus often said, “I AM THE ---” So to answer your question: how could one call upon God with the Name He gives Moses in Ex 3:14? You call upon Him by “whatever” YOU NEED to convey. The important thing is – to call upon Him. :) (As I know you well know.) Hopes this helps, and thanks for the “tip on the new site”. My, how I go on when I “talk” about what I love. Taleb |
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