Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39808 | ||
Exodous 3:8 that is my name forever.....forever...not change change it because you cannot pronounce it....would you not read Jeremiah 23:23-25......a prime example of how people today come up with any excuse to misplace his name.....by using "man's" reasoning....it said forever....Read isaiah 42:8 it say's that is my name....and please show where in the bible it say's god said it was "ok" to change his name?Exodous 6:3...i used to "appear" to isaac,jacob,abraham...but my "name" i did not "make" known to them...that is what it say's....when did god translate anything.....you said no one knows for sure....please read 1 corinthians 2:7....and verse 10,13....i will jesus own words.....john 17:6....if was not important why did he need to manifest(or make known)to people...the greatest trick satan has put on mankind is to get people to forget or even not use his name...and justify it by using other books not inspired by god to explain why it is ok not use it!if is not importan why did every prophet bear a portion of gods name in their name example:josiah,obadaiah,zedekiah,isaiah all have the phrase "yah" in them...halleluyah jeremiah....finally Isaiah 52:5-9....my people shall "know" my name.......only carnal minded humans try even to justify....not using it......you friend..... | ||||||
2 | Did God write the NT as well as the OT? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 39838 | ||
Greetings Jmscott2! In a later post, you said that you beleve that all Scripture is inspired by God. So, was God wrong when He translated YHWH as 'kurios' in the New Testament 50 times? For instance, in Luke 4:18-19, Christ Himself translates YHWH as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. Is Christ wrong? Is Christ hiding the Divine name? Is Christ part of some human attempt to mislead people? You can't have it both ways my friend. If all Scripture is inspired by God, then even those passages which translate YHWH as Lord are inspired as well. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
3 | Did God write the NT as well as the OT? | Bible general Archive 1 | eschaton | 40229 | ||
Well, your specific inquiries as to the linguistics of the Bible are certainly warranted. I suppose, however, that we must remember that both the NT and OT are THE word of God, albeit translated through the tongue of man in various times. We are lucky to have this much existing scripture considering how much impediment to dissemination of The Word we have had in the relatively brief history of human written communication. | ||||||
4 | Did God write the NT as well as the OT? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 40232 | ||
Greetings Eschaton! Don't get me wrong my friend! I fully believe that both testaments are God's word! I keep asking Jmscott because it is his contention that it is improper to translate the Hebrew word 'YHWH' as Lord. However, the NT translates this word as 'Kurios' or 'Lord' 50 times when the New Testament writers quote from the Old Testament. Therefore, if both testaments are God's inspired word, then 'Lord' is an acceptable translation of 'YHWH' - since God Himself translates it in this way. Personally, I fully believe that God has protected His Word - not in the sense that translations are inspired, but in the sense that the transmission of the text through time has been protected by God. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||