Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does Deut. 24:1 still apply? | Deut 24:4 | TommyS | 106201 | ||
BJH, you wrote: “When we look at divorce, we must take into account all the passages that speak about it.” Well, Jeremiah 3:6 says, The Lord said to me, “Have you seen what fickle Israel does? Like a wife who commits adultery, Israel has worshipped other gods on every hill and under every green tree. (7) I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me. But she did not come back. And though her faithless sister Judah saw this, she paid no attention. She saw that I HAD DIVORCED FAITHLESS ISRAEL and sent her away.” GOD DIVORCED Israel AND sent her away. If divorce is wrong, does this mean that God did something wrong? And IF divorce IS sin, then what does that say about God's divorce? Deut. 24:1-4 doesn't say divorce is wrong. It says after you are divorced and your mate marries another, and that other one dies or has a divorce, the FIRST "couple" can't get married again to each other. Which tells us that God will never "remarry" Israel again. TommyS |
||||||
2 | Does Deut. 24:1 still apply? | Deut 24:4 | bjh | 106233 | ||
I failed to mention one exception, which would account for the Jeremiah passage. Matthew 19:9 gives the exception "immorality". This is exactly why God divorced Israel. Israel was acting immorally. (In other words Israel had already divorced God in their hearts, so God finalized their departure.) | ||||||