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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does Deut. 24:1 still apply? | Deut 24:4 | TommyS | 106201 | ||
BJH, you wrote: “When we look at divorce, we must take into account all the passages that speak about it.” Well, Jeremiah 3:6 says, The Lord said to me, “Have you seen what fickle Israel does? Like a wife who commits adultery, Israel has worshipped other gods on every hill and under every green tree. (7) I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me. But she did not come back. And though her faithless sister Judah saw this, she paid no attention. She saw that I HAD DIVORCED FAITHLESS ISRAEL and sent her away.” GOD DIVORCED Israel AND sent her away. If divorce is wrong, does this mean that God did something wrong? And IF divorce IS sin, then what does that say about God's divorce? Deut. 24:1-4 doesn't say divorce is wrong. It says after you are divorced and your mate marries another, and that other one dies or has a divorce, the FIRST "couple" can't get married again to each other. Which tells us that God will never "remarry" Israel again. TommyS |
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2 | Does Deut. 24:1 still apply? | Deut 24:4 | bjh | 106204 | ||
In Jeremiah, Is God not speaking metaphorically? Deuteronomy is speaking of divorce between a man and wife. Jeremiah is speaking of God's relationship with the scattered 10 tribes of Israel who did not return to the land as did Judah. | ||||||