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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | Reformer Joe | 4976 | ||
What we do never see in Scripture, RevC, is Jesus saying "I am the Father." He says that the Father and he are one (one God, no problem here--I agree that it doesn't mean simply unity of purpose). Jesus also says that the Father is in Him and he is in the Father. If one takes that to mean that the Jesus is the Father, then we have additional problems to deal with things like John 14:20, where Jesus says He is in his Father and that followers of Jesus are in him and that Jesus is in them. If we are in Jesus and Jesus is in us in the same way that Jesus is in his Father, by your interpretation we are Jesus also, and therefore God! I know you don't believe in the deity of mankind, so how can you interpret Jesus being in the Father one way, and us being in Jesus in a different way within the very same verse? To address your 4 points: 1. Who is this Comforter? The Holy Spirit. So is Jesus sending himself? Is the Father sending himself? If the Holy Spirit is Jesus, what is the point of Him ascending and coming back ten days later? Couldn't he have just "changed offices" here? It seems that if I adopt a Oneness view, Jesus is involved in some big-time slight of hand when a plain reading of the text would indicate a distinction between the three. Why would he be so confusing if you are right? 2. It doesn't say in John 6:44 that the Father alone draws men, but rather no man is drawn unless the Father draws him. Trinitarians have no problem in stating that both the Father and the Son draw men. 3. The Father and the Son raising us together is not a problem for Trinitarians. Incidentally, 1 Cor 6:14 talks about God (the Father) raising the Lord (Jesus). Again we have the subject-object ditinction we see throughout the entire New Testament when it comes to different persons of the Trinity. 4. Again, all three persons have their part in sanctification. That does not mean that they are the same person, only that all three persons are one God. What also concerns me is your last paragraph. You say he "is both Spirit and flesh, God and man, Father and Son." While I certainly agree that God the Son took on a second nature, are you saying that Jesus' Sonship is only his human nature? Please clarify. --Joe! |
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2 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4999 | ||
Joe! I can see your point here and how it can be confusing. While I do not totally discredit the trinitarian view I feel it is limited in trying to fit God into three persons as opposed to fitting Him into three roles. Which I have done a more than ample job explaning. The mute point and one that we have found that we can agree on is there is ONE GOD. I think I am correct in that? Arent I? Nonetheless I will answer your questions and then ask a few of you myself First your addressal of the first 4 points. I think that would be an awful lot of rehash at this point. If you would like I could e mail you all of that information or I could repost my commments they have been quite informative and full of scripture,explanation and so on. To address your last comment- Jesus is the "Son" of God, Yet He is God...Now then that is a little confusing in its self and both are sciptural. God fulfills each role in complete fullness the son,the father and the holy spirit.... which is why Colossians tells us the fullness of the Godhead dwelleth in Him bodily. In other words Jesus was the father, the son and the holy spirit. That is obviously and blatantly scriptural. Thus Jesus has two natures-Spirit and flesh,God and man,Father and Son. So no I do not necessarily believe that His sonship was only human in nature. I do believe in three seperate and distinct roles. Now I'll really put my neck on the chopping block. I also believe that He can fulfill these three roles at the same time. yeesh! scarey huh? However In the book of Isaiah God makes some very strong statements which I believe do not allow for a Trinitarian understanding. In Isaiah 44:6-8 God makes the statement, I am the first and I am the last, And there is NO God BESIDES ME . . . Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Could scripture be any plainer than this? In verse 24 he states, I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself And spreading out the earth all alone. If language means anything then by Myself" and alone mean that there was no other person present. If God is not claiming that he is absolutely one here, then what stronger language would one suggest to convey this? If we take this to be one of the members of the Trinity speaking here, would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me? Would he not be forced to admit that there are indeed two other persons in the Godhead? God Bless you Joe. |
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3 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | Lionstrong | 5059 | ||
RevC: "would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me?" You misquote the verse, Isa 44:6-8. It does not say, there is no one besides Me. It says, there is no God besides Me. Since there is only one living and true God, there is no God besides him. He is the eternal Triune God. There is no other God besides the Father, but there are in fact two other Persons besides the Father. Lionstrong |
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