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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | Tamara Brewington | 205355 | ||
Dear Dan, Very interesting indeed, did you see brother Tim Moran's last post to me about the meaning of the words commits adultery in the Mark passage? He is right, and how about this, Mark's account is the eldest account and may actually be considered to be more accurate by some commentators. I though it was interesting to rediscover that in Mark is actually says that who ever divorces his wife makes her an adulteress, having nothing to do with that she committed adultery. The reason for this is that there was no such thing as your father taking you back, your father arranged to have you remarried at the earliest possbible convenience and that made you an adulteress, which is what Jesus meant. Some of these issues are not reconcileable in the usual way do to the grammatical constructions from one account to another. Reconciling these accounts is not so simple as reconciling say, the tomb accounts. No one said there was a conflict, a difference maybe, not a conflict. While it is true that if we confess He is faithful to forgive, consider that you cannot remain in the sin and keep walking in it just because you were forgiven. I said it before, I will say it again; if this were a case of fornication and someone said, I repent, but kept right on living in it, would you think they were going to heaven? I don't think so, and I bet you don't either, but when it comes to adultery, depending on who is doing the exegesis someone gets a free pass. What no one except Tim Moran has been able to do, for lack of skill is to do a grammatical and an historical criticism of these passages thoroughly to see exactly what the Greek was saying, not a word study, that is not enough, the tenses, the finite minutia of Greek, and a real thorough histocial study to determine exactly what the author's intended the texts to mean. That stuff is not able to be seen by looking up every word in Greek, more is involved. For instance did you know that the word porneia can refer to a number of things according to, not how we see the word listed in the Strong's but according to how the word was used in the first century? The word inicates immorality many kinds; a woman being seen with another man in public, a man improperly touching a woman - on her face - her arm with a caress, as fornication by penetration, as adultery by penetration, as temple worship idol sex between homosexuals or lesbians or bewtween heterosexuals, as masturbation, as sexual fondeling another, need I go on? When we look at the grammar for Mark and see that it says whoever divorces his wife makes her an adulteress, we also can see that it makes him an aduterer, without qualification of cause. When we look at the grammar in Mathew we discover that the verse in question is clausal; whoever divorces his wife except for immorality, is the first clause; and marries another woman commits adultery is a second clause - the exegetical commentators say that the first clause states clearly the ability to get a divorce for immorality, but that the second clause depends on the first clause in a cause for getting a divorce by says absolutely nothing about the right to remarry. In I Corinthians 7:15 we have a big problem with the modern translation of a Greek transiliteration into English. Every one takes this verse to mean if the unbeliever leaves then you are free to remarry. The text says no such thing, it says that if they leave and are an unbeliever then the believer is not bound to reamain married, no where in the that text does it say you are free to get remarried, but people read that into it even though the English grammar, the Greek grammar does not support that. In fact Paul comments on the state of marriage and on what grounds one can remarry at the end of the passage in verse 39 saying a wife is bound to her husband as long as she lives, what it does not say is, but if one of them commits adultery you are free to remarry, you are certainly free to divorce in such a case, but not to remarry... There is no way to get that out of it without reading it into the text. Going to get those books that brother Tim Moran suggested in a post back there somewhere... God's Day To You, Tamara |
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2 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205454 | ||
Tamara...so are you saying that Jesus didn't say "except for the cause of unchastity" in Matt 5:32 and "except for immorality" in Matt 19:9? These statements were made in response to the Pharisees' question about divorce. Mark 10:9 was later in a house where His disciples questioned Him about what He said outside. Matt 19:10-12 apparently give us the context of the disciples' question to Jesus! | ||||||
3 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | Tamara Brewington | 205455 | ||
Dear danjg, Did you not read the whole thread? I realize how long it is, but I promised someone else by te grace of God and in love of Christian fellowship, I would drop it it is dropped! I have no problem continuing outside of here for study purposes if you wish; eamil me at whatdoyoubelieve@hotmail.com God's Day To You, Tam |
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