Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | ebrain | 188646 | ||
Within the context of 1Cor 15:24-28, I am unable to comprehend how the Son who I understand is coequal with the Father, and the Holy Spirit should at the end be subject to God, when He also is God? Also what is meant by "God may be all in all". Thank you. pabrain. 1Cr 15:27 For "He has put all things under His feet."[fn1] But when He says "all things are put under Him," it is evident that He who put all things under Him is excepted. 1Cr 15:28 Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all. |
||||||
2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | Searcher56 | 188647 | ||
You already asked about this in January 2006. | ||||||