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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228576 | ||
Sure thing. Clearly, a distinction is present between the Father and the Son. The difference lies in how we understand that distinction. I say that the Father was manifested in the flesh. Now, God is not a man (Num 23:19), so the Father is not the Son, for the Son is indeed a man. But, the Father (divinity) was in the Son (humanity). Because the Son not only has complete divine nature, but also complete human nature, not only did He speak as being God, but He also spoke as being man. That meant He spoke of God as we all should - referring to God as "God", as well as with those male-pronouns "He", "His" and "Him". This is where we largely see differently. I say this is Jesus speaking as a man, whereas you say this is the second person speaking to the first person. But I say, for Jesus to be fully man, He had to not only "walk our walk" but also "talk our talk". For Him to "talk our talk" is not to run away with the notion that this is now a distinct person from the Father, but simply to recognize the dual natures within the Son. God bless. |
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2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | Beja | 228580 | ||
SeekTruth, I believe you have missed the crucial points here. For example where ephesians 1 says that Christ is seated at the right hand of the Father. Or that God, as other than Christ, actually raised him to seat him there. Whatever this "distinction" between the Father and Christ is, it allows them to sit next to each other. In Christ, Beja |
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