Results 1 - 13 of 13
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | oldone | 228484 | ||
If Jesus was in the beginning with God and coequal in all things, then I find controversy in the scriptures. I will try to explain with the following scriptures. Isa 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God. Isa 44:8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Isa 45:5 ¶ I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me: Isa 45:21 Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me. If Jesus was with God eternally why would he deny him in these verses in Isaiah if he was there and coequal. Ho 13:4 Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me. Hosea through devine inspiration has declared that there is no saviour expect the one God of Israel. De 4:35 Unto thee it was shewed, that thou mightest know that the LORD he is God; there is none else beside him. Isa 44:24 Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself; Would the above scripture be contradictory to the below scripture. The above verse God did it and below Jesus did it. Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. Many times the bible uses Jesus or the father or God as doing the same things. All things that pertains to God falls under one catagory THE GODHEAD. Webster defines the word Godhead as DEVINE ESSENCE---SUPREME DIETY Joh 6:46 Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily In John 6:46 we see that only one man has seen God and he had to be part of God. Col 2:9 tell us that he is the only human part of the Godhead Joh 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? Jesus told Philip that when he saw him he saw the Father. 2Co 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. |
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2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | Beja | 228487 | ||
Oldone, Have you never heard of the trinity? God exists eternally in three persons. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Three persons, one God. How do you explain Philipians 2:1-12? What you are saying is a heresy called modalism that has been rejecting by the Church for well over a thousand years. In Christ, Beja |
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3 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | oldone | 228490 | ||
Anyone who studies God word has heard of the doctrine of the trinity which I do not accept. The bible is very plain in the FACT that God is a spirit not a man (person means-an individual or a human being). Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. Jesus the only person in the Godhead. When anyone questions my limited intellegence then I stop my diccussions with them Lord bless you Beja |
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4 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228491 | ||
The problem here is that you are giving your own definition to the word 'person' Person does not necessarily mean 'individual' or 'human being'. Our problem is always in finding human language which can be used to describe God. Certainly God is not three individuals, nor is He three human beings. In fact strictly the word used throughout history has been 'persona' which is not as strong as person. True the Father is Spirit, the Son is Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is Spirit. And the Spirit of the Son became man. This latter fact empohasises the distinctions within the Godhead. God is One and yet within Him is a threeness, and this threeness is intercomunicating and inter-personal. Thus Father communicates with Son, and Son with Father, and both communicate with the Spirit. Their relationship is inter-personal. For convenience we speak of three persons. We have no other word to use. But we must put the in proviso that God is not three separate individuals. Jesus clearly revealed this when He said, 'He who has seen Me has seen the Father'. In other words so close is the relationship between Father and Son that to see One is to see the other. Nevertheless the fact is that the Son became man and the Father did not. Thus they are not simply modes of the same Being. There is a separateness between them. |
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5 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228554 | ||
Hello! God is absolutely one. Persons, persona, individuals, or any other non-biblical word is unnecessary. God is not a "committee" or a "council" who intercommunicates. In all actuality, the Father was manifest to take way our sins. 1 John 3:1-5 shows this, where verse one establishes the Father as the subject of the passage and verse 5 tells us this very truth. Please show me otherwise where it says in the scriptures that the (unbiblical) "second person", the Son, became a man. God bless. |
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6 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | srbaegon | 228555 | ||
Hello SeekTruth, You do a good job of using a portion of the biblical text to make your point. Perhaps using the whole thing will shed light on the truth. The discussion into which you break concerns being children of God. This actually begins at 1 John 2:28 where the referent of the pronouns (abide in him, so that when he appears...) is the Son, whose real coming to earth as messiah and taking on a human nature is the thesis of the epistle. Pick all the cherries you like. The epistle is clear in reference to three co-equal, eternal persons. Steve |
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7 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228557 | ||
Scriptures never show three persons. The epistles never speak of this either. That's trinitarian doctrine spoken into the text. Why do you find it so hard to see the one God taking up different manifestations? Show me some scriptures and I'm sure I can show you otherwise, and correctly. God bless. |
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8 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | DocTrinsograce | 228558 | ||
Hi SeekTruth... Are you a Jehovah's Witness? In Him, Doc |
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9 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228559 | ||
Nope, I am not. I believe in the full deity of Christ! Amen. God bless. |
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10 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | DocTrinsograce | 228560 | ||
Pentecostal Oneness? | ||||||
11 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228561 | ||
Yes, but otherwise known to many trinitarians as a "herectic" lol. Which I am certainly not. | ||||||
12 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228566 | ||
seektruth you say you are not a heretic. the whole church says that you are heretic. i wonder who is right? | ||||||
13 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | SeekTruth | 228571 | ||
Is the church God? No. Does the church honestly understand Oneness? No. I'm not worried. God bless. |
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