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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228486 | ||
you said: If Jesus was with God eternally why would he deny him in these verses in Isaiah if he was there and coequal. Reply. The verses do not deny that the Son was an essentisl part of God. They only declare that God is One. There is only One God, revealed as Father, Son and Holy Spirit, The Son was with the Father eternally, both being part of the Godhead. Jesus was the eternal God become man. There are distinctions WITHIN the Godhead. We only know this because that is how God has revealed Himself. So all the verses you cite simply indicate the Oneness of the Triune God The further verses, along with others, reveal that the One Who became flesh was God become man. The Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world. That is why Jesus is constantly declared to be 'the LORD', there is one God, the Father, and one LORD, the Son. Both are God and LORD. They are, along with the Holy Spirit, the one God and one LORD. |
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2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | oldone | 228493 | ||
Deny would better said as "he did not acknowledge him" when he said there was no God but him. Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure: Isaiah said that God knew the end of this creation from the beginning. I believe that Jesus was the central and main part of Gods plan for mankind. In that sense Jesus was there in the beginning. My opinion only. The distinctions within the Godhead the operations of God. I enter this question only to give scriptures for consideration not for debate. I don't think we will change our hermeneutics concerning this so I will bow out of this discussion and ask my first question in a day or so. God bless all. |
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3 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228494 | ||
The Scriptures say of Jesus Christ: 'By Him all things were made that were made' (John 1.3). 'By a Son by Whom also God made the world' (Hebrews 1.3). 'Through Him God created everything in heaven and earth --' (Colossians 1.16). 'He was already in existence before all things, and by Him all things hold together' (Colossians 1.17). Did not Jesus Christ then, like the Father, know the end of this creation from the beginning? The distinctions within the God head are not just distinctions of operations, if you mean by that what I think your mean, they are personal distinctions. 'The Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world'. 'The Father has committed all judgment to His Son'. The distinction is real between Father and Son. It is the Son Who will save, and not the Father. It is the Son Who will judge and not the Father. And yet they work in total harmony. 'The Son does nothing on His own, He does only what He sees the Father do.' (Jn 5.19). Thus He observes the Father's doings, and Himself does the same. There are two distinct personal entities. The Son is given equal honour with the Father (John 5.23). Both are co-equal. 'All that My Father has is mine' (John 16.19). They co-own the universe, but in distinction. These are just a few Scriptures which bring out the relationship between Father and Son. The reason Jesus is called 'the Son' is in order to indicate His sameness of nature with the Father. |
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