Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | Beja | 228445 | ||
Oldone, Yes, that is what I am saying. In Christ, Beja |
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2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | oldone | 228484 | ||
If Jesus was in the beginning with God and coequal in all things, then I find controversy in the scriptures. I will try to explain with the following scriptures. Isa 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God. Isa 44:8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Isa 45:5 ¶ I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me: Isa 45:21 Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me. If Jesus was with God eternally why would he deny him in these verses in Isaiah if he was there and coequal. Ho 13:4 Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me. Hosea through devine inspiration has declared that there is no saviour expect the one God of Israel. De 4:35 Unto thee it was shewed, that thou mightest know that the LORD he is God; there is none else beside him. Isa 44:24 Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself; Would the above scripture be contradictory to the below scripture. The above verse God did it and below Jesus did it. Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. Many times the bible uses Jesus or the father or God as doing the same things. All things that pertains to God falls under one catagory THE GODHEAD. Webster defines the word Godhead as DEVINE ESSENCE---SUPREME DIETY Joh 6:46 Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily In John 6:46 we see that only one man has seen God and he had to be part of God. Col 2:9 tell us that he is the only human part of the Godhead Joh 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? Jesus told Philip that when he saw him he saw the Father. 2Co 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. |
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3 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228486 | ||
you said: If Jesus was with God eternally why would he deny him in these verses in Isaiah if he was there and coequal. Reply. The verses do not deny that the Son was an essentisl part of God. They only declare that God is One. There is only One God, revealed as Father, Son and Holy Spirit, The Son was with the Father eternally, both being part of the Godhead. Jesus was the eternal God become man. There are distinctions WITHIN the Godhead. We only know this because that is how God has revealed Himself. So all the verses you cite simply indicate the Oneness of the Triune God The further verses, along with others, reveal that the One Who became flesh was God become man. The Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world. That is why Jesus is constantly declared to be 'the LORD', there is one God, the Father, and one LORD, the Son. Both are God and LORD. They are, along with the Holy Spirit, the one God and one LORD. |
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4 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | oldone | 228493 | ||
Deny would better said as "he did not acknowledge him" when he said there was no God but him. Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure: Isaiah said that God knew the end of this creation from the beginning. I believe that Jesus was the central and main part of Gods plan for mankind. In that sense Jesus was there in the beginning. My opinion only. The distinctions within the Godhead the operations of God. I enter this question only to give scriptures for consideration not for debate. I don't think we will change our hermeneutics concerning this so I will bow out of this discussion and ask my first question in a day or so. God bless all. |
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5 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | biblicalman | 228494 | ||
The Scriptures say of Jesus Christ: 'By Him all things were made that were made' (John 1.3). 'By a Son by Whom also God made the world' (Hebrews 1.3). 'Through Him God created everything in heaven and earth --' (Colossians 1.16). 'He was already in existence before all things, and by Him all things hold together' (Colossians 1.17). Did not Jesus Christ then, like the Father, know the end of this creation from the beginning? The distinctions within the God head are not just distinctions of operations, if you mean by that what I think your mean, they are personal distinctions. 'The Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world'. 'The Father has committed all judgment to His Son'. The distinction is real between Father and Son. It is the Son Who will save, and not the Father. It is the Son Who will judge and not the Father. And yet they work in total harmony. 'The Son does nothing on His own, He does only what He sees the Father do.' (Jn 5.19). Thus He observes the Father's doings, and Himself does the same. There are two distinct personal entities. The Son is given equal honour with the Father (John 5.23). Both are co-equal. 'All that My Father has is mine' (John 16.19). They co-own the universe, but in distinction. These are just a few Scriptures which bring out the relationship between Father and Son. The reason Jesus is called 'the Son' is in order to indicate His sameness of nature with the Father. |
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