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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | Beja | 228431 | ||
Oldone, You said, "What this verse is telling me God and Christ became one, Like, body and soul. Another way I look at it is that Jesus was the man that God became." We understand clearly from John 1 that The Word was eternally with God and distinct from God, even though He actually was of the very same as God. We see that it was this Word which became flesh in Christ. So we should not think that the Father became flesh, nor should we think that Christ was ever a man while not being deity and somehow God later merged with him. Christ was the Word become flesh from the moment He was created in the womb. Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God. Joh 1:3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. In Christ, Beja |
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2 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | John Ryals | 228449 | ||
God the Father has put all things under the Feet of Jesus. This, in reference of the fact that "all things" do not include God the Father being made subject to Jesus. Verse 28 implies that in Paul's day, this total dominion had not yet been exercised and, in fact, has not done so unto this present hour; but the time will come when it definiely shall be, which will be at the close of the Millennial Reign. Hebrews 1:1-4 | ||||||