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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | is the context 1cor 1-13? | 1 Cor 13:10 | who_is_holy | 196613 | ||
heb 1:1-2, don't say that the word became flesh. I can infer that, but it doesn't say that. paul is saying when he come face to face with Jesus then his part knwldge will be complte. he will have full knwldge. this is wht's being said v9-10 | ||||||
2 | is the context 1cor 1-13? | 1 Cor 13:10 | Searcher56 | 196616 | ||
I recopy post 51748 ... Greetings Angie! I love Greek questions, so I'll take a shot at your question! :-) First, here is a very literal translation of 1 Cor. 10:13: "...but when the pefect comes the from the part shall be rendered inoperative." There really isn't a pronoun associated with the word 'perfect'. There is simply a definite article (which basically functions like a pronoun). The definite article is neuter. The word 'perfect' or 'telios' simply means 'pefect, mature, complete, ect...". There is nothing in this passage which specifically states what this 'perfect' thing is. Nowhere does it say it is Christ or the Bible. However, v. 12 gives us a powerful clue. It speaks of a time when we will know 'fully, even as we are 'fully known'. Thus, I believe that v. 10 is referring to a future time, in the New Heaven and the New Earth, where Spiritual gifts will no longer be needed, because we will be in the presence of Christ. This is just a guess, since the text never specifically says to what 'the perfect' refers. However, it is unlike that Christ is being referred to, since He had already come. And, it is unlikely that Scripture is being referred to, because we do not fully know everything yet. For online resources, go to - http://bible.crosswalk.com/ I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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