Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mercy's God's prerogative | Rom 9:15 | Lionstrong | 13260 | ||
This verse means that it's totally up to God on whom he has mercy. He doesn't owe mercy to anyone. He owes no one a "chance" to be saved, a chance to hear the Gospel. Peace, Lionstrong |
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2 | Mercy's God's prerogative | Rom 9:15 | Morant61 | 13360 | ||
Greeting Lionstrong! Another way of looking at this verse is to see it, not as simply a declaration that God has a right to have mercy or not, but to see it as a declaration of His essential nature. In other words, it is God's nature to have mercy and compassion on people. Thus, we have throughout Romans 9-11 a declaration of God's intention to have mercy on those, not only from Israel, but from the rest of the world as well. Those who believe will be made part of the Israel of God and grafted in by mercy. What a wonderful God we serve! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Mercy's God's prerogative | Rom 9:15 | Searcher56 | 13366 | ||
Yes, Tim, God wanted to have mercy on Israel and man ... but, because of her unbelief, she was rejected (vv 30-32). Also, verse 14 is asking if God is unjust for choosing Jacob over Esau (vs 13). Answer is not at all. The choice was based on mercy (vs 14). Amen What a wonderful God we serve! Amen Steve |
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4 | Mercy's God's prerogative | Rom 9:15 | Morant61 | 13572 | ||
Greetings Steve! I appreciate your response. I do have two questions though. 1) Did God reject Israel? Rom. 9:30-32 makes the case that Israel stumbled, but it never says that God rejected them. In fact, Rom. 11 makes the exact opposite case. Rom. 11:1-2a says, "I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew..." 2) Jacob and Easu: Are you interpreting Rom. 9:13 as a reference to individual election to salvation or as a reference to God's choice of one nation over another? The reason I ask is that Rom. 9:13 is a quote from Mal. 2:2-3. This passage says, "2 ‘‘I have loved you,” says the LORD. ‘‘But you ask, ‘How have you loved us?’ ‘‘Was not Esau Jacob’s brother?” the LORD says. ‘‘Yet I have loved Jacob, 3 but Esau I have hated, and I have turned his mountains into a wasteland and left his inheritance to the desert jackals.” This passage deals with Israel complaint against God. As prove of His love for Israel, He appeals to His choice of Jacob to be the one through who the blessing of the convenant would come. The Bible Knowledge Commentary says of Mal. 2:2-3: "The Lord’s claim over Israel was vindicated by two considerations. First was His love expressed in His free choice, His election of Jacob and his descendants (including this generation which had questioned Him) to inherit the promise. This was contrary to the normal practice of choosing the oldest son. Esau, also named Edom and the father of the Edomites (Gen. 36:1), was the firstborn of the twins. Yet even before birth God freely elected Jacob, later named Israel, as the heir (Gen. 25:21-34; Rom. 9:10-13). The Hebrew words for loved and hated refer not to God’s emotions but to His choice of one over the other for a covenant relationship (cf. Gen. 29:31-35; Deut. 21:15, 17; Luke 14:26). To hate someone meant to reject him and to disavow any loving association with him (cf. Ps. 139:21). Nor do these words by themselves indicate the eternal destinations of Jacob and Esau. The verbs refer to God’s acts in history toward both of the two nations which descended from the two brothers." Just curious my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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