Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can we live life without sinning? | Rom 6:12 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 209469 | ||
If it is insisted that Rom 7 explains Paul’s experience as a believer, I would think one needs to be hard-pressed to explain how this experience as described is consistent with what the Bible affirms is the true state and experience of those who are “born again”. For example: (1) “…sin…produced in me all kinds of wrong desires” (8). (2) “…sin became alive and I died…” (3) “…sin…deceived me and through it I died.” (4) “…sin…produced death in me…” (5) “…I am unspiritual, sold into slavery to sin.” (6) “…sin lives in me…” (7) “...nothin good live in me.” (8) “…I want to do good, but I cannot…” (9) “…I do the very evil I do not want!” (10) "…sin…lives in me.” (11) “…evil is present with me.” (12) “…captive to the law of sin…” Note that in this verse, if it is understood as the apostle’s experience as a believer, Paul admits he is in a struggle with sin but also admits he losses that struggle because sin consistently and always (the only way to undestand it in view of the whole context) overcomes him. (13) “…I serve the law of sin.” Are we to understand that this is the expected and normal experience of believers, to be “unspiritual and sold into slavery to sin”? Is this what is meant by being under grace? Is Rom 7 what is meant by the “new creation” (2 Cor 5:21)? |
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2 | Can we live life without sinning? | Rom 6:12 | stjohn | 209475 | ||
Hi again Lookn, by the way the NO was not to your question, but an emphatic NO to that doctrine! :-) John |
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3 | Can we live life without sinning? | Rom 6:12 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 209491 | ||
Re: ID#209474. 1 Jn 3:2. Although one may include the idea of a “moral perfection” (Doc’s term), that does not seem to be the emphasis here. I think what is the primary reference here is the fact that, at the parousia, it will made evident or obvious to the world that it is we are God’s children. Note the reference to “the world” (NIV) in vs.1. The emphasis is on our glorified state as children of God before the world. However, connected with the expectation of the Lord’s return, John informs us that those who expect it guard the purity of their lives to reflect his purity (v.4). At the parousia, the moral change should not be as significant as the physical change because the believer has already been maintaining, shall I be permitted to say, a heavenly purity. And, again, although Doc uses the phrase “moral perfection” (and I use it only because , I’m not sure this is accurate seeing as how the word “perfect” is misconstrued. I’d opt for “moral blamelessness”. 2 Cor 3:18. Again, I do not see the emphasis on our moral condition, although it obviously should not be ruled out entirely; the emphasis is on our glorified state (i.e. physical). Such glorification, as spoken here and in 1 Jn, refers, if anything, to the whole man, his whole being, physical and spiritual. Unfortunately, that one is not now walking in a state of blamelessness is no proof that such a state has never been or is impossible to attain now on earth. As to ID#209475, to which question is your “No” referring? |
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