Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Grace and Truth | 54031 | ||
Thank you Tim, This is what I was refering to, when I made my statement concerning Hank. The thing about Mark's ending, it's in all of the translations that I have read, therefore to me it's is inspired and can be trusted. |
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2 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Morant61 | 54034 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! I wish that every single manuscript of the Bible read exactly the same way - our job would be much easier than! :-) However, some copies differ. Therefore, one must decide which copies are accurate and which are not. So, what about the manuscripts which do not contain the long ending of Mark - are they inspired or not? The ones with and the ones without the long ending of Mark cannot both be inspired. So, one must decide on the basis of some sort of evidence. The evidence against the long ending of Mark is strong. If one is to accept it, one must answer the following questions: 1) Why do the oldest manscripts not contain the long ending? 2) Why do many manuscripts which do contain the long ending include notes about it be missing from earlier manuscripts or notes identifying it as a latter addition? 3) Why do several early church fathers mention that the long ending of Mark is absent from almost every Greek manuscript with which they are familiar? There are serious questions which must be addressed. I can't answer them for you my friend, but my conclusion is that the best answer is that the long ending of Mark was added later and was not original. This position best answers these three questions, while accepting the long ending as original leaves them unanswered. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Grace and Truth | 54047 | ||
One other point, is that when translated and published in bibles, it's in all of the one's I have read, which also speaks to what the scholar's have agreed to do with the long enging. Now if it is a matter of being safe than sorry I stand with them. |
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4 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Morant61 | 54051 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Most scholars have agreed that the ending is not original, which is why most translations include the long ending in brackets or footnote it somehow. Regardless, a translation is an end product, not the beginning product. One still has to wrestle with the fact that the earliest manuscripts did not include Mark 16:9-20. Why? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Grace and Truth | 54053 | ||
I never had to wrestle with, because I believe it's inspired! | ||||||
6 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Morant61 | 54055 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! That was a quick response! :-) So, what about the copies that do not include Mk. 16:9-20? What about the copies which have one of the four various endings? Are they inspired too? If a 2nd century copy does not include the long ending, but a 5th century copy does, which one is inspired? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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7 | Is baptism necessary for salvation? | Acts 10:48 | Grace and Truth | 54059 | ||
I would say, the one that has been translated, and placed in our bibles. | ||||||