Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | Delores | 1113 | ||
Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | ||||||
2 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | bcbloyd | 1156 | ||
Obviously only Jesus knows for certain what motivated Him to cry out such as statement, but I'd like to offer the following as a "possible" reason that I do not believe is too far-fetched and rather reasonable when one ponders it. We know He cried out loudly, obviously knowing those watching would hear him, and we know the words he spoke can be found in the first verse of Psalms 22. I believe most of the Jews watching were well versed in the OT Scriptures as Jesus knew they would be. I believe Jesus cried this out "loudly" at least partly to draw attention to those verses in Psalms, thus identifying himself and the sacrifice he was committing at that very moment. I'm not trying to lessen the fact that He had to have been suffering extreme pain both physically and even spiritually; He, in all his holiness, was sacrificing himself in payment for a whole world of sins. But, as that sinless sacrifice or Savior, which the Bible professes Him to be, He would not and could not have jeopardized it by lashing out in error against the will of God the Father prior to paying the penalty for sins, that is, prior his death; Otherwise, He'd no longer have qualified as the Savior. But if we let his words lead us to read the entire chapter of Psalms 22, which begins with the same words Jesus spoke in Mark 15:34, you can see it paints a graphic picture of a man's crucifixion, which was prophesied centuries before and fulfilled in that moment: from the sneering masses to the piercing of his hands and feet, from the fate of his garments to his death prior to the thrust of the sword. Beginning with Christ's quote of the 1st verse to the last lines of Psalms 22, it all sums up the actions of that day and gives the next prophesy for the future--"It will be told of the LORD to the coming generation. They will come and will declare His righteousness. To a people who will be born, that HE has performed it." At least that's how I see it. |
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3 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | Ray | 1549 | ||
That's the way I see it too. It's too bad no one responded to you directly. Can we also compare these scriptures; that is Ps.22:1 "My (God), my God, why hast Thou forsaken me? with Mark 15:39b "Truly this (Man) was the Son of God." Psalm 22 isn't one that translators would capitalize the pronouns although it is certainly speaking of Christ prophetically. But it shows the humanity of Christ and how He was forsaken totally as a man. But this (Man) is the Son of God. Ps. 22:29b "All those who go down to the dust will bow before (Him), Even he who cannot or did not keep his soul alive." |
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4 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | bcbloyd | 1589 | ||
When you state "It's too bad no one responded to you directly," were you talking about people responding to my answer to the original question posed by Delores or to direct responses to Delores' original question? In what way do you have in mind to compare Ps.22:1 with Mark 15:39b? I agree Psalms 22 is prophetic of Christ and that it shows his humanity as well as his justified exaltation, as depicted in Psa. 22:29b. As far as capitalization of pronouns, I realize translations vary, but I, as a believer in the Deity of Christ Jesus, have no problem with capitalizing pronouns that refer to Jesus, or God the Father, or the Holy Spirit. I do want to clarify that at the end of my original post, dated 3-15, I capitalized HE in the Psalm quote to emphasize who (the LORD) had performed the deeds described in earlier verses of the chapter. The emphases is mine, and not that of the original. |
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5 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | Ray | 7588 | ||
Hi bcb, I've taken the log out of my eye finally and see that I haven't answered you very directly, as in quickly. Not only has nearly a week gone by, but its been nearly three months since you wrote this posting and I haven't responded to a question you asked me. The capitalization in your 3/15 posting was fine. He indeed is the (One) who is able to deliver and performs great things. You asked about the comparison that I see in Psalm 22:1 and Mark 15:39. The words are found also in Matt.27:46. Let me write these references and put some pronouns in parenthesis for comparison and contrast. Psalm 22:1, David speaking, "My (God), my God, why hast Thou forsaken me?" Matt 27:46, "...that is,"My (God), My God, why have You forsaken Me?" And some of those who were standing there, when they heard it, began saying, "This Man is calling to Elijah." Capital M is mine. Mark 15:34b,"...which is translated, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken (Me)?" When some of the bystanders heard it, they began saying, "Behold, He (sic) is calling for Elijah." The question I have is why capital H here but small m in Matthew. I'm hoping for more consistency in our translators. Mark 15:39, "When the centurion, who was standing right in front of Him, saw the way He breathed His last, he said, "Truly this (Man) is the Son of God. Psalm 22:1, David speaking, "My (God), my God, why hast Thou forsaken me?" We might even compare or I would say contrast Matthew 22:45, "If David then calls Him '(Lord)', how is He his Son?" The capital S is mine. Matt 20:30, "And two blind men sitting by the road, hearing that (Jesus) was passing by, cried out, "Lord, have mercy on us, Son (sic) of David!" |
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