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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is meant by 'age'? | Matt 12:32 | kalos | 106242 | ||
Greetings, Ray! Ray: "The question is, "Does it matter when these sins are committed?" kalos: No. Those sins that will be forgiven will be forgiven regardless of when they were committed. Likewise, that which will not be forgiven will not be forgiven, regardless of when it was committed. As I understand it, "either in this age or in the age to come" modifies or relates to not the time in which the sin is committed, but to the time in which it will not be forgiven. Ray: Especially, verse 32, "And whoever shall speak a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him". The question is, will this sin be forgiven in the age(s) after Christ? kalos: I'm not sure what is meant by "the age(s) after Christ"? Are you referring to the age(s) after Christ's first coming to earth, after his Second Coming, or of some other age(s)? I do not see where this verse pertains to some great prophetic mystery -- something that would require gettting out our prophecy maps, Greek word studies, etc. The meaning of the verse, in context, is that the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is a grave sin -- one which will not be forgiven in the present nor in the future. It simply will NOT BE FORGIVEN -- period. Ray: "Should we in this age know that the Son of Man is the Holy Spirit...?" kalos: No, the Son is not the Holy Spirit; the Holy Spirit is not the Son; and neither of them is the Father. Yet, the Son is God, the Father is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. It is one God in three Persons, not one God in one Person as some say. "Should we in this age know that the Son of Man ...is God?" Yes, we should. The divine revelation made it clear nearly 2,000 years ago. If we don't know it by now, I doubt that we ever will. Romans 9:5 NIV Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen. "Christ, who is God over all." Blessings to you, kalos |
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2 | What is meant by 'age'? | Matt 12:32 | Ray | 106264 | ||
Hi Kalos, I should have said "Especially verse 32a." I agree with you about the rest of the verse. But the word spoken against the Son of Man has no determination about whether it will be forgiven "in the age to come". 1) You say that the divine revelation, notably Romans 9:5, made it clear that the Son of Man is God. But I believe that verse has been discussed before through the years. The Greek without the differentiation in upper and lower case does not make it clear. It is a mystery, accepted by faith. Lets look at the verse in the Greek. Interlinear, Jay P. Green, Sr. editor, "Romans 9:5, "of whom the fathers, and from whom the Christ according to flesh, He being over all, God blessed to the ages, Amen." Interlinear, Tyndale House, Romans 9:5, "OF WHOM THE FATHERS AND OUT OF WHOM THE CHIRST ACCORDING TO FLESH, THE ONE BEING OVER ALL GOD BLESSED INTO THE AGES, AMEN." The bold print was not me shouting. That version puts the translation in all capitals. And as you know the Greek does not give guidance in capitals. So, do we translate/interpret this verse as having two or three pronouns of Deity? Do we talk of "the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen." NIV , or do we talk about "the Christ according to the flesh, the One being over all, God blessed into the ages, Amen."? Or do we go to yet another Interlinear copy? I believe that Tim Moran has many more to choose from. And I think that for this verse he would say, "Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed into the ages, Amen." In any case, that is how I would interpret the verse. I would go with the versions that have two pronouns of Deity. Now I say that it has been discussed through the ages whether He is the One or the one who because I see it throughout the Scriptures. Look at 2 Corinthians 11:9 where the choice is between five or six pronouns. Here again the Greek has "He being blessed" or "THE ONE BEING BLESSED" with its possibility of "the one being blessed". 2 Corinthians 11:31, NKJ, "The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." 2 Cor 11:31, NASB, "The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, He who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." Note that both versions translate/interpret the verse as having five pronouns of Deity. Green's Interlinear would have six pronouns because it translates "He being blessed". The Tyndale House copy would only five at the most because the manuscript they used does not have the word "Christ" in it. That is the reason I say that these things have been discussed before and with some indecision in the interpretation. Personally, I would go with the NKJ with its five pronouns and the consistency of using "who is", and its inclusion of the word "Christ". 2) So how do we view this blend of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? Who is over all? The Christ according to the flesh or is it the God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ? 3) Is not the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, not God (who is Spirit) blessed to the ages? This is not a man; He is the Son of Man, He is the spiritual Messiah. He is God with us. From the heart, Ray |
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