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NASB | Matthew 12:32 "Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 12:32 "Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit [by attributing the miracles done by Me to Satan] will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. [Mark 3:29; Luke 12:10] |
Subject: What is meant by 'age'? |
Bible Note: Hi Kalos, I should have said "Especially verse 32a." I agree with you about the rest of the verse. But the word spoken against the Son of Man has no determination about whether it will be forgiven "in the age to come". 1) You say that the divine revelation, notably Romans 9:5, made it clear that the Son of Man is God. But I believe that verse has been discussed before through the years. The Greek without the differentiation in upper and lower case does not make it clear. It is a mystery, accepted by faith. Lets look at the verse in the Greek. Interlinear, Jay P. Green, Sr. editor, "Romans 9:5, "of whom the fathers, and from whom the Christ according to flesh, He being over all, God blessed to the ages, Amen." Interlinear, Tyndale House, Romans 9:5, "OF WHOM THE FATHERS AND OUT OF WHOM THE CHIRST ACCORDING TO FLESH, THE ONE BEING OVER ALL GOD BLESSED INTO THE AGES, AMEN." The bold print was not me shouting. That version puts the translation in all capitals. And as you know the Greek does not give guidance in capitals. So, do we translate/interpret this verse as having two or three pronouns of Deity? Do we talk of "the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen." NIV , or do we talk about "the Christ according to the flesh, the One being over all, God blessed into the ages, Amen."? Or do we go to yet another Interlinear copy? I believe that Tim Moran has many more to choose from. And I think that for this verse he would say, "Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed into the ages, Amen." In any case, that is how I would interpret the verse. I would go with the versions that have two pronouns of Deity. Now I say that it has been discussed through the ages whether He is the One or the one who because I see it throughout the Scriptures. Look at 2 Corinthians 11:9 where the choice is between five or six pronouns. Here again the Greek has "He being blessed" or "THE ONE BEING BLESSED" with its possibility of "the one being blessed". 2 Corinthians 11:31, NKJ, "The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." 2 Cor 11:31, NASB, "The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, He who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." Note that both versions translate/interpret the verse as having five pronouns of Deity. Green's Interlinear would have six pronouns because it translates "He being blessed". The Tyndale House copy would only five at the most because the manuscript they used does not have the word "Christ" in it. That is the reason I say that these things have been discussed before and with some indecision in the interpretation. Personally, I would go with the NKJ with its five pronouns and the consistency of using "who is", and its inclusion of the word "Christ". 2) So how do we view this blend of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? Who is over all? The Christ according to the flesh or is it the God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ? 3) Is not the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, not God (who is Spirit) blessed to the ages? This is not a man; He is the Son of Man, He is the spiritual Messiah. He is God with us. From the heart, Ray |