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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | does eternal have a beginning? | Jer 1:5 | ethan | 23162 | ||
so does that mean Pslm 8:5 is wrong. the amplified translates it to God.and the original word is Elohiym.how many other times has Elohiym been translated into Angel? which one was written first? .it appears over 2249 times and in Psalms 8:5 is the only place that it is translated angels. it is the same as Gen 1:1 also check out the two words for LOWER. one means to cause to lack and in Hebrews it means to make inferior looking at the two verses that way they balance out. bless you. | ||||||
2 | does eternal have a beginning? | Jer 1:5 | Morant61 | 23200 | ||
Greetings Ethan! You are correct that the word 'elohim' is used in Ps. 8:5. But, the Septuagint translated the word as 'angels' and almost all modern translations have followed suit. This would be a tricky decision if it were not for Heb. 2:7. Since the New Testament is inspired, and it used 'angels' for it's rendering of Ps. 8:5, we are justified in using 'angels' in Ps. 8:5, even though the usual meaning would be God. This is an excellent example of allowing Scripture to interpret Scripture. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | does eternal have a beginning? | Jer 1:5 | kalos | 23206 | ||
Amen and amen. THANK YOU, Tim, for a scriptural answer -- one that makes sense, one that ought to have been plainly and clearly seen from the beginning. You make a good, clear point. Yet, there is nothing complicated nor mysterious about it. The NT writers, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, often did some interpretation when quoting passages from the OT. Since they were under the inspiration of the Spirit, their interpretations would have to be inspired and thus valid. THANKS AND THANKS AGAIN. Grace to you, kalos |
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