Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | DBR | 127163 | ||
If God created evil etc. then that would make him responsible for murdering his own Son Jesus Christ or Lord (an evil act), how can that be so when the Bible says that "God IS Love," God's Love and evil are total opposites, also God is about eradicating evil out of his creation so then he would have to eradicate himself, and that cannot be can it? DBR |
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2 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | Stultis the Fool | 127168 | ||
The very same Law that God created condemned his Son Jesus. How do you explain John 1:29? Consider Genesis 22:8. I do not say that God is evil. If God created that which is evil, that does not make him evil. God created man of corruptable flesh. Does this make God evil? We must also surmise that the Lord knew all things when the serpent was created, as well as man, and he most certainly knew that man would be evil. How do you explain Job 26:13? How do you explain Isaiah 45:7? "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things." How do you explain 1 Kings 22:19-23 "Micaiah said, "Therefore, hear the word of the LORD. I saw the LORD sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left. The LORD said, 'Who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?' And one said this while another said that. Then a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD and said, 'I will entice him.' The LORD said to him, 'How?' And he said, 'I will go out and be a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.' Then He said, 'You are to entice him and also prevail. Go and do so.' Now therefore, behold, the LORD has put a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; and the LORD has proclaimed disaster against you."" |
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3 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | DBR | 127170 | ||
Sorry if I missunderstood you point. "God created man of corruptible flesh" not so as found at Deuteronomy 32:4-5 The Rock, perfect is his activity, For all his ways are justice. A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice; Righteous and upright is he. 5 They have acted ruinously on their own part; They are not his children, the defect is their own. A generation crooked and twisted! Man makes himself bad by not obeying God's will. God tolerates evil but is not the cause of it, the text you site show God's toleration of evil. God will always bring ultimately disasters against man that do not do his will as they will "reap as they sow" see Gal 6:7-8. From God's view bringing evil results upon themselves and others for their bad deeds, so if God let this happen then it can be said to be from God but due to their own badness. DBR |
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4 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | Stultis the Fool | 127180 | ||
Thank you for the reply! I will certainly agree that Man is condemned because he does not obey the will of God. However, there are a great many scriptures that will support the belief that the flesh is corrupt; Pauls Epistle to the Romans is riddled with the concept. View chapter 7 in particular, but you will also find reference in Peters 1st epistle and Corinthians will provide ample additional witness. As well, there are ample scriptures to support that God creates man. Aditionaly, Psalm 51 predicates itself with the concept. Man sins because he is corrupt. You have not adequately explained the scriptures I quoted, and you have not substantiated your opinion with scripture. Additionaly, you claim that if God created evil, that would make Him responsible for the death of His own Son, but I tell you plainly, that God was most directly responsible for the death of Christ (something you claim to be evil), or have you never read that "...God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son..." Please, explain your position in light of the scriptures I have quoted. |
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5 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | DBR | 127208 | ||
There was a time when sin was not Romans 5:12 That is why, just as through one man sin entered into the world and death through . . . but not so now as all humans are from Adam and Eve under the influance of Satan The Devil. I did not say Jesus was Killed I said Murdered which is to take like AGAINST THE LAW, Mosaic in this case, Jesus did nothing for which to die from God's view, he was perfectly faithful hence his postion as the rensom etc., it was the wicked under the influance of the Devil that put him to death Just a God fortold wopuld happen as He knows that the wicked will try do anything to his will being done, but they will not win, ultimatly they will fail as in Jesus case, God ressutected him. DBR |
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6 | How do you explain? | Gen 1:31 | Stultis the Fool | 127226 | ||
What difference does all that make? I assure you that just as it was the intent of the Law to condemn all unrighteousness, it was also the intent of the Law that the Lamb of God be sacrificed. Consider the prphecy of Isaiah 53:10 "Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand." I agree that the Lord did not "murder" His Son, but He was ultimately responsible for the death (or sacrifice, if you like). |
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