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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Doesn't it say that God would cause evil | 2 Sam 12:11 | userdoe220 | 15406 | ||
Well, you could use the "Anthropormorphic" argument. Since God is perfectly holy, He cannot be the cause of Evil. Therefore, this passage must be anthropormorphic in nature. This line of reasoning is used when a passage states that God repented/changed His mind over performing some act. |
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2 | Doesn't it say that God would cause evil | 2 Sam 12:11 | Morant61 | 15408 | ||
Greetings Schwartzkm! Another way of looking at this verse would to consider the stem of the verb. The hiphel stem, which this is, was used to indicate cause. However, oriental cultures viewed everything as ultimately caused by God. Thus, it was permissible to say that something God allowed was "caused" by God. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | If God causes all, how can He be holy | 2 Sam 12:11 | RWC | 16457 | ||
Hello Tim, If Hebrew culture "viewed everything as ultimately caused by God" (which I assume must include sin), how did they understand God to be holy, righteous, and good (which certainly they did)? Have a good day. Bob |
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4 | If God causes all, how can He be holy | 2 Sam 12:11 | Morant61 | 16471 | ||
Greetings Bob! I'll try to find more information on this concept! I am operating by memory, but what I was referring to is simply that we never see in Hebrew that God allowed something. The reason is a cultural one. Jews saw God as the ultimate cause of everything, so they saw it as appropriate to say that God caused something when someone else may have actually been the immediate cause. But, I'll try to find more detail! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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