Results 1 - 5 of 5
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does this mean God is the author of sin? | 2 Sam 12:11 | glory777 | 15360 | ||
RWC- God is not the author of sin, but He is righteous, and will allow personal freedom. Those who had evil done to them, God allowed, just as God allowed Eve to sin and punishment had to follow. Whenever people sinned, they were given fair warning. Whether they chose to follow, was their own choice. God could have withheld the evil that would take place, and we know who is in charge of evil, but because of their disobedience, what He had foretold would happen if they didn't, happened. At least this is my answer to those who say God is judgemental and just a God of wrath. He will also do anything and allow things to happen to bring His people to Him. God's peace. Debbie |
||||||
2 | Doesn't it say that God would cause evil | 2 Sam 12:11 | RWC | 15391 | ||
Thanks for your response, Debbie. I would agree with that God is holy and righteous. But I don't know how to understand this passage. It does not say that God would *allow* this sin to take place. I would have no problem with that. But what it says is that God would *cause* it. God is speaking and He says, "I will..." three different times in these two verses. How are we to understand this? | ||||||
3 | Doesn't it say that God would cause evil | 2 Sam 12:11 | Kelkat | 15393 | ||
The term "I will" is not translateable from Hebrew to English. That is to say that Strong's Concordance has no Hebrew word for either I or will. If you have ever taken a foreign language, you know that it never translates exactly and it is ofter grammatically difficult to read. Translaters often make the reading easier while trying to stay true to the text. That is one reason you have so many tranlations. My thought is that God is not saying He will do it, but that it will be done. Kelkat |
||||||
4 | Can it really be translated otherwise? | 2 Sam 12:11 | RWC | 15395 | ||
I'm no Hebrew scholar by any means, but from what I can determine from my interlinear and every translation that I have, God is speaking in the first person as the subject and is stating that He would perform the action, not just that the action would happen. Are there any Hebrew scholars out there (maybe even you Kelkat?) that can shed some definitive light on this? |
||||||
5 | Can it really be translated otherwise? | 2 Sam 12:11 | Ray | 15407 | ||
Hi RWC, I am certainly no scholar, but with my interest in pronouns, I would be very hesitant to take away any of the words of Scripture. I would certainly not take away anything from God. Why is it that we are hesitant to allow God to be the author of sin? If he wasn't going to allow sin, we wouldn't even be here to talk about anything because He wouldn't have created Adam in the first place. We don't even know what sin is until He tells us; until He made some laws. Adam and Eve were running around naked; was God allowing sin? No, it wasn't sin until God had to punish rebellion and unbelief and make some laws. He is the One lawgiver and judge. He made us, He can smash us as a potter does a pot that is made, and He can mold us and not give up on us. Your reference to Galatians 2:17 has some comparisons to 2 Samuel 12:11,12. David sinned with the wife of Uriah in secret and the Lord allowed the same evil to be done in broad daylight by David's companion with the wives of David. 2 Samuel 12:12, "Indeed, you did it secretly, but I will do this thing before all Israel, and under the sun." Galatians 2:17b, "...we ourselves have also been found sinners, is Christ then a minister of sin? May it never be!" I can see in the comparison of the references here the fact that David saw that he sinned against the Lord. In Galatians we see that we have to live to God not to the Law. And I see in comparing 2 Samuel 12:13 with Galatians 2:20 the only way of having our sins taken away and that is in being crucified with Christ. As far as the 2 Samuel passage and who was responsible, it was the companion of David who sinned and God allowed it and used it to show David his sin against Himself. Because David's sin with Bathsheba gave "occasion to the enemies of the Lord to blaspheme," their child was not allowed to live. A comparison of 2 Samuel 12:12 with 2 Samuel 16:21,22 shows a similar scene in the sight of all and how it was "as if" it were by the word or will of God. If you want a lifetime of study, you can do a word study of the "I will" occurances in the Old Testament. I'm afraid this posting is rather obtuse. Later, Ray |
||||||