Results 1 - 16 of 16
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 39704 | ||
Greetings Farout! I was just involved in a discussion about the name YHWH with another poster. Because of our discussion, I because curious about how the NT translated YHWH whenever an OT passage which contained that word was quoted. As a result, I found 50 instances where the OT word 'YHWH' was translated by the Greek word 'kurios' or 'Lord'. Therefore, I would argue that Lord is a good translation of YHWH, since that is how the inspired NT writers translated it. Here are the references: ****************************************** The first reference is the New Testament verse, the second is the Old Testament verse being quoted. Mt. 3:3, Is. 40:1 Mt. 4:7, Deut. 6:16 Mt. 4:10, Deut. 6:13 Mt. 5:33, Num. 30:2 Mt. 21:9, Ps. 118:26 Mt. 21:42, Ps. 118:22-23 Mt. 22:37, Deut. 6:5 Mt. 22:44, Ps. 110:1 Mt. 23:39, Ps. 118:26 Mt. 27:10, Zech. 11:13 Mk. 1:3, Is. 40:3 Mk. 11:9, Ps. 118:26 Mk. 12:11, Ps. 118:22-23 Mk. 12:29-30, Deut. 6:4-5 Mk. 12:36, Ps. 110:1 Lk. 2:23, Ex. 13:12, 15 Lk. 3:4, Is. 40:3 Lk. 4:8, Deut. 6:13 Lk. 4:12, Deut. 6:16 Lk. 4:18-19, Is. 61:1-2 Lk. 10:27, Deut. 6:5 Lk. 13:35, Ps. 118:26 Lk. 19:38, Ps. 118:26 Lk. 20:42-43, Ps. 110:1 Jn. 1:23, Is. 40:3 Jn. 12:13, Ps. 118:25-26 Jn. 12:38, Is. 53:1 Acts 2:20-21, Joel 2:31-32 Acts 2:25, Ps. 16:8 Acts 2:34, Ps. 110:1 Acts 3:22, Deut. 18:15 Acts 4:26, Ps. 2:2 Acts 7:49, Is. 66:1 Acts 15:17, Amos 9:12 Rom. 4:8, Ps. 32:2 Rom. 9:29, Is. 1:9 Rom. 10:13, Joel 2:32 Rom. 11:34, Is. 40:13 Rom. 15:1, Ps. 117:1 1 Cor. 2:16, Is. 40:13 1 Cor. 3:20, Ps. 94:11 1 Cor. 10:26, Ps. 24:1 2 Tim. 2:19, Num. 16:5 Heb. 7:21, Ps. 110:4 Heb. 8:8-12, Jer. 31:31-34 Heb. 10:16-17, Jer. 31:33-34 Heb. 10:30, Deut. 32:36 Heb. 12:5-6, Prov. 3:11-12 Heb. 13:6, Ps. 118:6 1 Pet. 3:12, Ps. 34:15 *********************************************** I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | jmscott2 | 39763 | ||
if i am not mistaken when you say yahweh are you not saying it in english..so what is the problem....is your dad's name john or is it dad....or is that his title of the household?...exodous..3:8 he say's that is my name forever....not lord!...Read Exodous 6:3 he say's i "use" to appear they saw him as god almighty,El shaddi,but my name Yahweh,not lord a title did not make myself know to them...in other words it was not time before moses to give it to them yet!...god is spirit John 4:24...read Genesis 5:5 man was created in his image..notice the next verse it say's male and female he created them!....wait a minute i thought adam was the only man created...he was but he was created male and female within himself...and called him man....YAHWEH....is masculine and feminine within himself...he is spirit and man made in his image!proof:yhwh...add vowels a,for adam,...e for eve...YAHWEH.....male and female like genesis 5:5 says....created in his image......it pains me no end to see people go to great lengths since their childhood..are forced to remember their name learn how to write it down on a piece of paper...sign their signature....and become irate when someone calls them something other than thier name...but god.....call him whatever you want..it doesnt matter right read..Exodous 20:7...Isaiah 42:8......also chapter 52:5-6.....also exodous 23:13....and Zechariah 14:9 one name!when it come to god he will not fovever let people "keep"...letting people misuse...or forgetr his name Jeremiah 23:23-27.... | ||||||
3 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 39772 | ||
Greetings Jmscott2! Thanks for your response! There are several points I would make to your comments. 1) First of all, our English Bibles are translations. It is very rare that we simply write out the equivalent letters for a Hebrew (or Greek) word (this process is called transliteration). The reason is simple. The goal of translation is to put one language into another, not simply spell Hebrew words in an English manner. If one did this too much, the Bible would be filled with words which meant very little to English readers. 2) Secondly, no one is sure which vowel points were spoken with the word YHWH. Therefore, 'Yahweh', 'Jehovah', ect..., are all guesses. If I were to make the decision, I would prefer they just wrote 'YHWH' without any vowels. This would eliminate any possibility of mistake. 3) Finally, the point of my last post was very simple. The New Testament, along with the Old Testament, is the inspired Word of God. Thus, God Himself is the author. When God Himself quoted OT passages containing the name 'YHWH', He could have written out 'YHWH' or 'Yahweh' or 'Jehovah'. However, God Himself choose to translate His Divine name as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. Therefore, one can only conclude that it is an acceptable translation to God - since it is His translation. So, it wasn't people who made this decision. It was God Himself. Unless of course, you want to say that God didn't inspire the New Testament writers to translate 'YHWH' as 'kurios'! But, Scripture itself teaches us that 'all Scripture is inspired by God'. Therefore, I believe that if God translates His name as 'Lord' 50 times in the NT, then it is okay for us to do the same thing in our English translations. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39808 | ||
Exodous 3:8 that is my name forever.....forever...not change change it because you cannot pronounce it....would you not read Jeremiah 23:23-25......a prime example of how people today come up with any excuse to misplace his name.....by using "man's" reasoning....it said forever....Read isaiah 42:8 it say's that is my name....and please show where in the bible it say's god said it was "ok" to change his name?Exodous 6:3...i used to "appear" to isaac,jacob,abraham...but my "name" i did not "make" known to them...that is what it say's....when did god translate anything.....you said no one knows for sure....please read 1 corinthians 2:7....and verse 10,13....i will jesus own words.....john 17:6....if was not important why did he need to manifest(or make known)to people...the greatest trick satan has put on mankind is to get people to forget or even not use his name...and justify it by using other books not inspired by god to explain why it is ok not use it!if is not importan why did every prophet bear a portion of gods name in their name example:josiah,obadaiah,zedekiah,isaiah all have the phrase "yah" in them...halleluyah jeremiah....finally Isaiah 52:5-9....my people shall "know" my name.......only carnal minded humans try even to justify....not using it......you friend..... | ||||||
5 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39817 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT Wait a minute. At one time you said the New Testament books were inspired by God. Now you seem to be saying that they are not inspired because they use "kurios" instead of "YWHW" or "Yahweh". Which is it? Also you said: "if is not importan why did every prophet bear a portion of gods name in their name" They didn't--Amos, Nathan, Gad. Steve |
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6 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39822 | ||
all scripture is inspired of god...2 timothy 3:16 ...but what did their names mean...i did not say that the old testament was not inspired i said what jesus said were the scriptures were when he said to the disciples in John 5:39...let me ask you this?when he said that were matthew-Revelations written yet?...no so what scriptures was he talking about?..read Luke 24:27...and 44-45.....how about this...read Isaiah 8:20 teaching(moses)tesitmony(prophets) if they not speak according to them their is no light(dawn)in them......use the pattern jesus use to teach and then you can speak according to the scriptures... | ||||||
7 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39823 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT I agree that all Scripture is inspired of God. But your definition of Scripture includes Old Testament only. My definition includes both Old and New Testaments. So I repeat my question: Is the New Testament inspired? And if it is inspired, then why is God not permitted to have the writers use "kurios" and not "YHWH"? Steve |
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8 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39828 | ||
"all"....and for the record "i"have no definition of the scriptures but jesus does read John 5:39...genesis-malacaih........let me ask this what is his divine name?.....any bible reader knows that he allowed us to call him divine titles....read Exodous..6:3 i use to appear...but now read...again...look moses after the phenomomon at the bush god told moses to go to egypt and tell pharoah let his people go...moses say's who shall i tell them who you are or what is you name...Read Exodous....3:13-15....remember the egytptian are world renound for their gods and names..moses was raised an egytpian....so he asked what is your name...at that time he did not know..now he knew forever!to all generations..not just to the israelites...have you been a witness to the original writings?...any hebrew alive today know.....that yahweh is god's divine name..they are just afraid to use it like their forefathers......Jeremiah 23:26-27....it has never been your or my definition of what the scriptures are ....it is god's definition!Acts 2:21 and Joel 2:32...and by the way who divided the bible into the old testament and new testament man or God? | ||||||
9 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39835 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT, So you have stated that only Genesis-Malachi is inspired by God. Thank you for that clarification. God divided the Bible into two testaments by establishing a new covenant (1 Cor 11:25; Heb 8:1-13). Steve |
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10 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39840 | ||
read Matthew 5:17-18.......came to fulfil.....and by the way...read verse 13 again....are we talking about the scripures or covenants?...."ALL" scriptures is inspired 2 3:16......if god uses anyone they are inspired!....anybody...again the new covenant is written on the heart.....not tablets of stones or pages..read jeremiah 31:31-34...in their hearts......scriptures and covenants are two different things......right? | ||||||
11 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39841 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT Yes, the new covenant is written on the heart. But I add that the New Testament is written on the paper. What I have come to understand is that you believe Genesis-Malachi is inspired by God. However, you have never told anyone what you believe about Matthew-Revelation. Steve |
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12 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39845 | ||
again all scripture is inspired!...was jeremiah before paul.....or luke or john.....?.....read john 14:26......i believe what jesus believed....and paul and john...and so on...read 2 corinthians 3:3-6....if you cannot get it through your mind that god foreknew that man in his limited mind....would mess up the writings with their own tranlations,foul ups,mispellings,bloops,...blunders...said this in John 14:17, and 26...this how paul wrote 14 books!..notice those verses said he or him! | ||||||
13 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39853 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT, I know you believe all Scripture is inspired, but according to your own reasoning only Genesis-Malachi is called Scripture. What does "would mess up the writings with their own tranlations,foul ups, mispellings, bloops, ...blunders" have to do with Paul writing these books. Are you saying that Paul made all those mistakes, or are you saying Paul was correcting mistakes? And what makes you think the Greek New Testament is so messed up? Is it because there is a small difference (less than 10 percent) between all the manuscripts because of scribal error? The Hebrew text has variations between manuscripts as well. Does that make it any less Scripture? And why don't tell us plainly what you really believe about Matthew-Revelation? Where did it come from? What is it's purpose? At least give us that much. Steve |
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14 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39873 | ||
sure matthew-revelations are are inspired writings.....used to familiar us with the original writings....again let's use jesus own words!...John 5:39 he told the pharisees to search the scriptures...at that time the scriptures were genesis-malachai....correct....why cannot you see what jesus is doing at Luke 24:27...and 44-45?.....read john 5:47.....again i whole heartedly believe the "everything"...written by moses to paul....everything.....and Again all scriptures are inspired......jesus called many bodies that were inspired by holy spirit to be a witness some more than others....for instance Paul was to be the 12th apostle not matthais....as the apostle chose....against the holy spirit!acts 1:20 compare Psalms 109:8... | ||||||
15 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 39937 | ||
Hello JMSCOTT If Matthew-Revelation is inspired, then it is God speaking through men. If God is speaking through men, then the word "kurios" as used in the Greek text, is an accurate and proper usage instead of "YWHW" or "Yahweh". Steve |
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16 | Why not use Yahweh for LORD? | Bible general Archive 1 | JMSCOTT | 39969 | ||
nope......did paul use kurios...or was it changed after the jerusalem was destroyed.....and later influenced by the surrounding nations...look it up my friend.....was paul a jew?...prove that paul used kurios...and not yhwh......in his translations....but we can prove paul used the scriptures jesus was talking about read.....2 timothy 4:13....may i ask you what nation was in power at that time...was it rome or greece?....rome!.....then came greece and anybody possesed of the spirit can tell you that....then...any!...translations were influenced by other languages on down to the dark ages to our time...which they put in their own words....hence John 14:26....jesus knew what would happen ....that is why the holy spirit...does the teaching....not a preacher from a pulpit!...on this very board everyday there are arguments.....over what is this or that...meanwhile jesus said the holy spirit would be doing the teaching...regardless..of what translation you read.....right?...so you keep right on arguing ove what god's name is...when the original writ-ings were writtem in hebrew.....which take a trained scholar or somebody of descent to understand in the first place!.....but you can understand the holy spirit if given to you!......Galations 2:19-20....there you go who is it really in us doing the teaching? | ||||||