Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Those who died before Jesus' death | 1 Pet 4:6 | Morant61 | 139339 | ||
Greetings Angel! You wrote: "Do you know the premise of the Mormons' belief system? Thoughout time I've been visited by various representatives, in several states, uniquivocally, they always reference John 10:16 as the clear, textual, proof that their congregation was established by Christ!" This is an excellent illustration of what I have been saying. They err because they go beyond what Scripture actually says. :-) The word 'Mormon' is not even used in John 10:16! ;-) But, seriously, I am not denying the ministry of the Holy Spirit. I have simply been trying to make the point that Scripture is written in language, and language has meaning. It is when we go beyond the text of Scripture that we create problems for ourselves. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Those who died before Jesus' death | 1 Pet 4:6 | JCrichton | 139945 | ||
Hi, Tim Moran! I understand your position... I still hold that when we read Scripture as though we are reading a "best seller" or a tabloid or the Times (newspaper)... we are seeking to discern God by our own means--as limited and corrupt as they are, we will not know God! (John 14:16-17, 26; 15:26-27; 16:7-15) God Bless! Angel |
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3 | Those who died before Jesus' death | 1 Pet 4:6 | Morant61 | 139960 | ||
Greetings Angel! I respectfully disagree my friend! It is not by OUR means, but by HIS means. It is His word, not ours! ;-) He chose to reveal Himself in Scripture. He choose to give us commands, examples, and promises through a written word. He chose to use language to reveal Himself. Consequently, I would never read it like a 'best seller', or a tabloid, or a newspaper. I read it like it really is, God's self revelation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Those who died before Jesus' death | 1 Pet 4:6 | Ray | 139962 | ||
Hi Tim, By speaking of God's self revelation and "He chose to use language to reveal Himself", you recognize the presence of spirit and Spirit. John 1:16, KJ, "And of his fullness have all we received, and grace for grace." When you choose to go with seeing "Himself" you agree with "God Himself". John 1:16, NASB, "For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace." John 1:18, "NASB, "...He has explained [Him]." John 1:18, KJ, "...he has explained [him]." Which version is the better explanation? How does one decide; by his spirit or His spirit or the Holy Spirit? The only begotten God [the Son]; This Man has explained the Spirit. No man has seen God at any time. John 4:24, NASB, "God is spirit [Or a Spirit]..." I read it like it really is, a chance to know God as He reveals Himself to us. 1Peter 4:6, For the gospel has for this purpose been preached even to those who are dead, that though they are judged in the flesh as men, they may live according to God in the Spirit. That is how I have it "penciled in". :) From the heart, Ray |
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