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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | 1 Pet 2:24 | hshardy | 160416 | ||
did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | ||||||
2 | did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | 1 Pet 2:24 | atdcross | 160422 | ||
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3 | did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | 1 Pet 2:24 | BradK | 160433 | ||
Hi atdcross, Welcome to the Forum! You state, "The word "healed" refers to the whole man, spirit and body, in both the Hebrew Scriptures and the NT." Might I ask, how did you come to that conclusion? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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4 | did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | 1 Pet 2:24 | kalos | 160441 | ||
'The first of these so-called “healing in the atonement” passages is Isaiah 53:5, which specifically mentions that by Messiah’s wounds we are healed. The word translated “heal” in this passage is actually the Hebrew word rapa, which is often used in a spiritual as opposed to a physical sense in the Old Testament (cf. Ps. 107:20; Jer. 3:22). However, as we look at the context of Isaiah 53, there’s no doubt that the healing described there is definitively one which is spiritual in nature.' (www.equip.org/free/CP1104.htm) For more information see ID# 135983. Grace to you, Kalos |
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5 | did Jesus die for our sins or sickness | 1 Pet 2:24 | atdcross | 161082 | ||
It seems the Biblical reference works and books I have perused disagree with the above interpretation. Please see my remark to BradK. Healing in Isaiah 53 is not in opposition to physical healing as, I believe, the context shows. As such, the same word being used in Psa 107:20 and Jer 3:22 would be defined in the same way. It all the verses mentioned, it does not see the context argues against it. It should be noted that the covenant blessings included healing of all diseases (Ex 15:26; Deut 7:15; Psa 103:3) |
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