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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | CDBJ | 70570 | ||
Hi Tim, is it true that in the Koine Greek that the absence of the definite article puts more emphasis on the subject where as in the English the opposite is true? As a result when translating from the Greek to the English when the definite article is left out in the Greek it must be added in the English so that the emphasis remains constant. Example John 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. Isn’t the definite article left out in the original language in this verse? I assume that this rule doesn’t follow through with the indefinite article; is that right or not? Any help that you can give will be appreciated, CDBJ |
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2 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | Morant61 | 70573 | ||
Greetins CDBJ! It depends upon the context and the structure. Greek doesn't require an article at all. Usually, when it is used, it is there for emphasis. John 14:6 does include the definite article before each word. There actually isn't an indefinite article in Greek. It is kind of tricky when translating. Sometimes, you need to add an article where there is none and sometimes you need to leave it untranslated when it is there. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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