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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | Timotheus | 4614 | ||
Did Jesus go to hell after dying on the cross, as stated in the Apostles Creed? | ||||||
2 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124720 | ||
The fact of the matter is that the KJV of the Bible mistranslates the Scripture found in Psalm 16:10; Acts 2:27,31: "For thou wilt not leave my soul in HELL; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption" (Ps 16:10) "Because Thou wilt not leave my soul in HELL, neither wilt Thou suffer Thine Holy One to see corruption...He seeing this before spake of thr resurrection of Christ, that His soul not left in HELL, neither His flesh did see corruption" (Ac 2:27,31). As you can see from above the word HELL is used 3 times in reference to Christ. Unfortunately the KJV has mistranslated the term in the original Hebrew and Greek. The term in Hebrew is "Sheol" and in Greek "Hades" and neither term means HELL but rathar means the "unseen". Jesus did not go to HELL but went to the real of the undead. To better understand this world we go to Luke 16 where Jesus tells the story (not parable) of the rich man and Lazurus. We know it is not a parable because a specific persons name is used. In the story the two men die, the rich man going to "torments" and Lazurus to "Abraham's bosom. There is "a great gulf fixed" between the two places of which it is said, "they that would pass from hence to you may not be able, and that none may cross over from thence to us." The rich man is dipcted as "in anguish" and Lazarus "comfort." This same place of comfort is where Jesus went when He died. In fact it is the same place He promised the thief on the cross he would be with Him---"And he said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To-day shalt thou be with me in Paradise" (Luke 23:43)--"Paradise" and "Abraham's bosom" both being the same place. |
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