Subject: Mar 5:15 |
Bible Note: I apologize for not replying sooner. I did not see the e-mail that you had replied. When I say that context is king, I am saying that the author's original use of the text should govern meaning. In this case, because Plutarch or any other extra-biblical writer uses a word in a particular way, we cannot assume the Biblical author uses it in exactly the same way. There are shades of meaning based on the context of the paragraph. A short perusal of any good lexicon will bear this out. Extra-biblical usage helps understanding biblical use but does not define it. Steve |