Subject: dreams and visions not scriptural? |
Bible Note: First let me say that I hold the Word of God as the ultimate authority, nothing supersedes God's Word. But I still believe God deals with man outside of His written word. When the Apostle Paul says, "For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when the perfect comes, the partial will come to an end." (ICor 13:9-10) What is he saying? Is he saying that since the canon is complete, which it was not when he wrote this, prophesy is at an end? No, what he was saying is that all these things mentioned in the cited text, I Cor 13:8-10, will continue until that which is perfect comes. Christ our Lord is He that is perfect. When He returns for His bride all other things, as mention in the verses, will no longer be necessary. If God only speaks to man through the written bible, then we must be very careful to ensure we all buy the right bible, the right translation, and that we interpret scripture exatly the same. Otherwise we run the risk of surplanting God's voice for our own, our own personal interpretation of His Word. Again, I do not believe that we dream a dream and then say that what we have seen in a vision is above God's Word. It would not be accurate to say that and anything that is spoken in prophecy that contradicts God's Word is false. The Apostle Paul again speaks of his own revelations and visions in 2 Cor 12:1-4. He saw things he was not permitted to speak, but he had a vision from God. What the Apostle saw was not written down for us so it was not made a part of what we read today in our bibles, the vision was for him. Again, the bible was not yet complete in all the books that would become canon at the time when Paul had this vision. I bring this point up because one may say that the Apostles and such had visions then because the canon was not complete yet and so further revelation was forthcoming. But my example shows that what was given to Paul in this instance wasn't even going to be a part of canon, but yet it came forth regardless. The vision came forth for the Apostles edification. What about Cornelius' and Peter's vision in Acts 10:1-16. Was either vision false? No. Was this an example of how God, who is supernatural, speaks to the mind of man, who is not supernatural? Yes. I believe that God is the same yesterday, today and forevermore, that He changes not, so if this is the case why would He stop using the method of communication He has always used when speaking from the divine (Joel 2:28-30). Yes, we are blessed that we have God's Word to us in a written form, a form that is living and spiritual (John 6:63), but I don't believe that God is silent outside of the written word. I just don't have the power to silence God in that respect and because He is sovereign He is able to do the miraculous and speak to my spirit in a language my spirit perceives (Rom 8:16, 26-27). Thank you for this conversation. I have no desire to argue the point and will end with pray for peace to all those who love God. Be blessed in Jesus' name. |