Subject: A Thought-provoking question |
Bible Note: Hi taraleigh, Thanks for the reply! It is easy to misinterpret the English on 2 Cor. 5:21 because it doesn't bring to focus the actual language used- Greek. We have to be careful not to place on the Person of the Lord Jesus something that He could not in fact have done- namely sin! He could not be our Mediator had He sinned, nor could He have been God had He done so. So, somewhere in between, we have to reconcile the attributes of a Holy God with the nature of man that Christ became. Becoming sin and actually sinning are two entirely different things. The late A.T Robertson, a noted Greek scholar says this in regard to the passage: "Him who knew no sin [ton me gnonta hamartian]). Definite claim by Paul that Jesus did not commit sin, had no personal acquaintance with it. Jesus made this claim for himself (John 8:46). This statement occurs also in I Peter 2:22; Heb. 4:15; 7:26; I John 3:5. He made to be sin [hamartian epoiesen]). The words “to be” are not in the Greek. “Sin” here is the substantive, not the verb. God “treated as sin” the one “who knew no sin." Much more could be said, but I trust this will help to clarify your understanding. Let me know should you like to discuss further:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |