Subject: Isaiah 52:14 has "my people" - why? |
Bible Note: Hi Bauhinia, Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your answer, and very well done by the way. You did a very good job of expounding on my answer. :-) Thanks again. However, If you would like amahony to get notification, [via email,] that you have answered the question, you need to click on the original question to answer it. No problem though, we all do that from time to time. ;-) But sense I'm here, I would like to point out if I may, and I hope you don't think I'm just being critical, I do think that it is important to see that this particular group of jews were not "God's people" as you have stated. Jesus called them the devil's children. It was Isaiah that called them "My people." Their genealogy may have been Jewish, but I think I would say, they were certainly not God's people. John 8:44 "You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. I'm also not to clear on what you said about them being "unpunishable" and I don't really like to use that term myself, because it is not God's desire to punish. He does "judge" the one's who reject Him though, as He had done in the past with the nation Israel at the hand's of the Babylonians, and the Assyrians. So I hope you can see why I am a little confused by you saying that they were unpunishable, and again I don't really like using that term, punish, God's desire, or, "will" if you please, is that none should perish. And remember, Jesus was broken hearted over Jerusalem, when He "judged" them in Matthew 23:37b. "How often I wanted to gather your children together, the way a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, and you were unwilling." ... I hope this helps you in your study. God bless. John |