Subject: Pledge, "under God", WWJD? |
Bible Note: You are correct. It is the courts’ interpretation of the First Amendment that indicates neutrality. That interpretation has swung so far out of line that the courts seem to be prejudiced against religion rather than neutral, and that assumes that neutral is the correct interpretation. The First Amendment also includes the phrase …or prohibiting the free exercise thereof… How often is this part overlooked? I haven’t been in a courtroom for many years; are witnesses “sworn in” using a Bible? Doesn’t the President of the United States take his oath of office using a Bible? And how is it that the Senate is allowed to have a Chaplain? Under the above interpretation, don’t these violate the First Amendment? It is clear to me that this interpretation (or at least its application) is wrong. Oh, to have the power to change to things. But wait… I do… for In God I Trust. Peace my Brother |