Bible Question:
Where are these words [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] coming from in your dispensing of the text? I have looked to the Greek text, and they are neither there nor in any bible I have here with me. Also, you define "commits" as "practices." Is it not possible to commit a single act, or must "commit" pertain to a plurality of action? Furthermore, I have consulted the Greek text concerning verse 9, and the word "practicing" does not exist in the text, nor does it exist in my NASB. Additionally, the text clearly states that noone who sins has seen or known him... the word habitually makes no such appearance in the text (Greek or otherwise). I also understand that this thought begins with the author proclaiming that Christ "came to take away sin" and "in him there is no sin." If we abide in Christ, and there is no sin in Christ, and YET we sin, how can this thing be (that there would be sin in Christ)? Has Christ failed to take sin from those who "believe in him and confess him as Lord?" Or is there sin in Christ? The authors proclamation seems to be fairly straightforward, especially in context with the beginning of the Chapter and versus 8 and 9 of chapter 1. |
Bible Answer: Hi Stultis the Fool, Your point about 1 John 3:6 not having the word habitually in it was well taken. I thought that the point that someone made about the tense of abiding in Him was well taken also. I wonder about the tense of 1 John 3:6b and consider who, as far as Persons are concerned, the verse is speaking. Personally, I think again of John 10:30 for this verse for comparing/contrast. John 10:30 says, "I and the Father are one." If we know that truth, then we have seen Him, and have known the Father. Then we practice righteousness because God is righteous and holy. If we are born of the Spirit then we are children of God and we practice righteousness and we love our brother. I believe that is the point that "Got it" has made and that this 1 John passage is about. In comparing 1 John 3:6 and John 10:30 I can praise God that "no one who abides in *Him sins" and "no one is able to snatch them out of the *Father's hand". My further question would be how we look at 1 John 3:24. "And the one who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. And we know by this that He abides in us, by the (s)Spirit whom [which] He has given us." Are we open to the idea of a spirit of love which is given to us? From the heart, Ray |