Subject: Which one are we not going to keep? |
Bible Note: "the enmity occasioned by the Torah" Ephesians 2:15 (The Complete Jewish Bible) by destroying in his own body the enmity occasioned by the Torah, with its commands set forth in the form of ordinances. He did this in order to create in union with himself from the two groups a single new humanity and thus make shalom, 'What is the grammatical significance of Sha'ul's (Paul's) placing "the Torah" in apposition with "the enmity"? If he means that the enmity is identical with the Torah, then when Yeshua (Jesus) abolished the enmity, he necessarily abolished the Torah too, in contradiction with his own statement at Mt 5:17. This makes little sense; and in fact, no one seriously considers the Torah to be enmity. ...although the Torah is itself "holy" (Ro 7:12), it occasions sin (in this case enmity between Jews and Gentiles) by stimulating the people's sinful propensities.' ____________________ (Jewish New Testament Commentary, David H. Stern, Jewish New Testament Publications, Inc., 1992). |