Bible Question (short): Age of Miracles - Past or Present |
Question (full): As I mentioned previously, I've gotten myself a new book, entitled "Bible Commentary" of the King James version of the Bible. It was written and compiled by 21 of the best minds in the Bible community. But I'm convinced it is a good commentary, as it does a good job of representing all sides on the controversial verses as shown below. The particular verse I'm referring to is from 1 Cor 13:9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part; 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will be done away. 11 When I was a child, I used to speak like a child, think like a child, reason like a child; when I became a man, I did away with childish things. 12 For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face; now I know in part, but then I will know fully just as I also have been fully known. 13 But now faith, hope, love, abide these three; but the greatest of these is love. As you all know, I've been suggesting that the miraculous phase of Christianity ended with the death of the Apostles and those on whom they laid their hands for that special empowerment. Now I'd like to quote from the commentary on verses 8-11. Unlike the leaf or the flower, love never fades and falls off. The significance of the Greek word (pauo) indicates that tongues would soon be "cut off" as their necessity in the process of New Testament revelation ceased. It is important to note that tongues are never mentioned again in the New Testament after this warning. Vanish equals be abolished (in Greek). This is the same word used in reference to prophecy above. This is not knowledge in general but the "gift" of knowledge by direct revelation. For suggests reason. Knowledge and prophecy as we now know it are suited only to an imperfect state of existence. This is best understood in the light of 1 Cor 2:6, in the sense of "mature" or "complete." Conservative Biblical scholars have proposed two main interpretations of "perfect." It may be a reference to the completion of the canon of Scripture, with which partial revelation (by knowledge, prophecy, or tongues) came to an end, culminating in a complete revelation of God's Scripture or it may refer to the maturation of the body of Christ in the sense of Eph 4:11-16. Paul employs the neuter because he does not comtemplate an individual. Thus, the "perfect" cannot refer to the coming of Christ Himself. Once the perfect has been achieved, there will be no need for that which is immature. It will not be needed or accepted and should not be desired. The apostle illustrates his point by likening it to the maturation of a person from infancy to manhood. A child speaks, reasons, and assimilates knowledge at the level of his maturity. End of quote. As you can see, the commentary presents both sides of this controversy so it seems pretty clear why I've taken the former position as it seems too be supported by the rest of the NT with the scriptures I've cited in the past. But I would be interested in what you think of the opinions of these learned men of God. God bless. --Rowdy |