Subject: Scriptural Support? |
Bible Note: Hi Tim Moran, Thank you for your help here. I have noticed a couple things tonight. 1) The King James copies that I have looked at, have both "Spirit of holiness" and "spirit of holiness" in the various copies. 2) The King James versions do not include the words "Jesus Christ our Lord". 3) The NKJ also does not have those words and yet translates verse 5 as "through Him". Does that mean that they are referring back to Son of God rather than the neuter "(s)Spirit? 4) With the ommission of "Jesus Christ our Lord" in mind, I would look for other interpretations being that I am, as you well know, a counter of pronouns of Deity. Here is a possible rendering for your consideration: Romans 1:1, "Paul, a bond-servant of Christ Jesus, called as an apostle, set apart for the gospel of (God), 2 which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the holy Scriptures, 3 concerning His Son, the *One who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh, 4 the *One who was declared to be the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the spirit of holiness. 5 Through (Him) we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles, for His name's sake, 6 among whom you also are the called of Jesus Christ;" The parentheses are mine for comparison. From the heart, Ray |