Bible Question:
Thanks--You mention Acts 19 as if to say that all the disciples of John had to be baptized again. But what about Jesus' very first disciple? Who baptized him? Wouldn't Jesus have had to baptize the very first disciple, at least? Tricky, I know. |
Bible Answer: Cited for reference: Heb 9:15 For this reason He is the mediator of a new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance. Heb 9:16 For where a covenant is, there must of necessity be the death of the one who made it. Heb 9:17 For a covenant is valid only when men are dead, for it is never in force while the one who made it lives. Until Christ died, the Perfect Sacrifice was not made and thus forgiveness for sins could not be granted until that moment. John the Baptist's baptisms were a foreshadow of things to come as so many things in the OT as compared to the NT. God bless. --Rowdy |