Bible Question:
Hi Kalos, Your post said that "The Hebrew in Deuteronomy 8:3 has "mouth of the Lord"; the Septuagint has "mouth of God". It is this latter that Jesus quotes." Jesus quoted that in Matthew 4:4. It is interesting to note that the NU text for the companion reference in Luke 4:4 omits that phrase "but on every word of God". These things have been thought about and discussed before don't you think? I wonder if you think that since Lord and God are both the same, we could look instead at the verse concerning the stones. The important thing to my mind is whether this Man is capable of changing the stones into Bread. Question: Does the Greek allow or suggest that there is "possession" involved. In other words could we interpret this verse concerning the stones in both Matthew 4:3 and Luke 4:3 as being "Your bread" or "loaves of Bread"? From the heart, Ray |
Bible Answer: Greetings Ray - re: your question, "whether this Man is capable of changing the stones into bread?" Does this not challenge the Divinity of Jesus and hence the sovereignty of God - which is, what I think, exactly what Satan was attempting? (pun intended) And the tempter came and said to Him, "If You are the Son of God, command that these stones become bread." Mt 4:3 Your question reminds me of the father's request in Mark 9:22 " . . . But if You can do anything, take pity on us and help us!" I can just hear Jesus incredulous response, "If I can" ?!!! (v 23) Might He say also to your question: "If I CAN turn these stones into bread?" And the devil said to Him, "If You are the Son of God, tell this stone to become (Your) bread." Luke 4:3 On another note, Greek or not, is the issue of possession in question in this passage? For God, as Creator, owns everything; He is sovereign over all and is not subject to the demand of ANY created being. (I think we forget this at times!) Thanks for giving me the opportunity to dig deeper into this passage! Blessings, mommapbs Psalm 34:8 |