Subject: Churchianity to be answered: |
Bible Note: Steve Butler: "Radioman ... it is by implication." Radioman speaks: "It is by implication?" No, it isn't. It may be by the infallible inference of one who was "correct most of the time." However, no such implication is made anywhere in that entire chapter of Acts. Remedial reading: The Bereans corrected Paul and he accepted it? Where does it say that in Acts 17:11? Notice, the question is not 'where does it IMPLY that?' The question is 'where does it SAY that?' By what stretch of the imagine do you take "they searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so" to mean they corrected Paul and he accepted it? You have a real knack for changing the subject, ignoring the question, and then answering new and different questions that you made up. |