Bible Question (short): 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 |
Question (full): Of course, James is right, and this is why all of us continue to sin each day. We fail to act according to love for the good we know we should do. Unfortunately, this verse doesn't help someone if they are in fact looking to the Bible to understand what is the good they ought to do, as is the point of the original question about masturbation. My questions merely illustrate that, to the best of my knowlege, the Bible has not established that masturbation, in itself, is necessarily sin, yet the first answer seemed to suggest this is the case. My concern lies with how this conclusion was reached, i.e. what are the assumptions and inferences used to interpret God's intent with this matter. Remarkably, your question about how I "honestly feel" makes my point for me. We are not to interpret scripture in terms of our feelings, rather we are to interpret our feelings in terms of scripture. To answer your questions, I "feel" we are blessed by God and one of his many gifts to us is our sexuality. Others include the enjoyment of food and drink. For the details of my position on the topic of masturbation perse, see my posting of 4/3/02. I'm not saying God blesses acts of masturbation, and I'm not saying he curses them either. Its just that I don't see any biblical basis for cursing ourselves if we do it, unless of course it leads to sexual immorality or overwhelming guilt. I have two points to address this possible risk. First, is it a sin, if when I am far from home for a long time, I masturbate and I think only of my wife, whom I love dearly? In light of what Paul suggests in 1Cor7, I can't see why this would be sinful. 1Cor7:2-5 "But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband. 3The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. 4The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. 5Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control." Is Paul suggesting that marriage is an acceptable way to indulge the fleshly desire for sex? Is he suggesting that the fleshly desire for sex is a legitimate reason to marry? Second, isn't verse 5 saying that release of sexual tension with the spouse is preferable to becoming so frustrated that the person falls prey to temptation? If so, then might Paul not also suggest that masturbation, while unseemly, might actually be a way to avoid falling into temptations that are most definitely sin, such as adultery or fornication? I have read many of your postings and I have come to respect your insights and bible knowledge. If I come across as argumentative, I am, but in the classical sense of the word and not in the sense of bickering or quarreling. Thanks, Parable |