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NASB | 1 Timothy 1:8 ¶ But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Timothy 1:8 ¶ Now we know [without any doubt] that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully and appropriately, |
Subject: do u tithe on unemployment checks |
Bible Note: Val, How shall I respond? Your post ignores every question I posted for thought and simply says that I'm wrong. My very first question was asking people to consider what scripture means by such things? Does every command need to be repeated in the new testament, or does the new testament assume the morality of the old? Show me please where the new testament forbids beastiality. And if you can not, shall I assume it is permissible since it is not repeated in the new? ENGAGE with what I said. Second, I think what you said was not very gracious. Why would you accuse me or anybody's motives as simply wanting to spend your money? I assure you that giving, and giving to the church specifically is biblical. Romans 12:13 says we are to be, "contributing to the needs of the saints." Galatians 6:6 The one who is taught the word is to share all good things with the one who teaches him. 1 Cor 9:13,14 Do you not know that those who perform sacred services eat the food of the temple, and those who attend regularly to the altar have their share from the altar? So also the Lord directed those who proclaim the gospel to get their living from the gospel. Might I ask where the money is to come from for this? Is it not people giving to the church? I challenge you to study 1 Timothy 5:17 and 18. Specifically to a word study on the word translated as "honor" in verse 17. Then see how paul uses the same Ox example in 1 Cor 9. I assure you I need no "tithe law" to scriptually preach that people should be supporting the church and pastor. My motive is not some worldly enjoyment of spending "other people's money." My goal is that I very much want to learn what scripture teaches so that I may walk obediently before my God. I challenge you again to actually engage with my post rather than simply dismissing it. What did Jesus mean in Matthew 5:17 and the following verses? How would you biblically argue that beastiality is wrong? What if I deny that it falls under the blanket categories of fornication and immorality? Can you prove from scripture that when the NT says that we are no longer under the law, it means, "Nothing said in the old testament can any longer tell us how one ought to live?" My post was meant to help us start looking at our assumptions yet you responded with nothing but unspoken assumptions. Please clarify. In Christ, Beja |