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NASB | Romans 4:6 just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works: |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 4:6 And in this same way David speaks of the blessing on the one to whom God credits righteousness apart from works: |
Bible Question (short): Imputed Righteousness |
Question (full): Thanks Joe Now for the anticipated (obligatory?) follow-up based on a portion of an e-mail that prompted my original question: "[The Reformers] taught that the believer is still under the Law as a 'code of conduct'. Christ's death certainly paid for my sins, and now I am to serve God by keeping the Law. Of course, I cannot keep it in its entirety. So, the doctrine states that Christ's perfect righteousnes, as having kept the Law perfectly, is given to me. So, as the common expression goes, when God looks at me, He sees Christ. The more important Biblical doctrine is the Righteousness of God. We are made the Righteousness of God in Christ - that is, while sinful men were allowed to roam the earth and experience God's blessings, God's righteousness was NOT revealed. Why was this sin not judged?!? Rom 1 tells us that the righteousness of God is revealed in the Gospel: the death of Christ on the cross reveals what God really thinks about sin, what His righteousness demanded. So, in Rom 3, death of Christ is seen as declaring God's righteousness apart from the Law. If God were to manifest His righteousness according to the Law, the sinner would die when he commits his first sin. The death of Christ shows how God could be 'just' in two distinct spheres: for the 'sins that are past', that is all of God's dealings with man before the cross; and for 'this time', 'justifying' the one who believes in Jesus. In Rom 4:6 (KVJ) we have the word 'imputeth righteousness', but that is a serious mistranslation, reflecting the bias of the reformers. The word is the same as 'counted' in Rom 4:5, and 'reckon' in Rom 6. It does not mean, in any sense, 'give to'; it describes the action of the beholder, not something done to the object beheld. So, we are 'reckoned' righteous by God - when He looks at me, He does not see Christ, He sees (I cannot fathom this!) me, but He sees me as _righteous_. I have been justified, declared righteous, because all of my sins have been removed. Now, it is true that He sees me _in Christ_. But this is a different thing than 'seeing Christ.'" 1. Is the Reformed position given accurately? 2. What are comments concerning the "more important" doctrine of the righteousness of God? Are these things mutually exclusive, or are they possibly mutually misunderstood? Steve |