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NASB | Acts 2:39 "For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Acts 2:39 "For the promise [of the Holy Spirit] is for you and your children and for all who are far away [including the Gentiles], as many as the Lord our God calls to Himself." [Is 57:19; Joel 2:32] |
Bible Question:
Is Peter saying here that the Holy Spirit is for ALL generations? If yes, does this mean speaking in tongues? Regards, Huron |
Bible Answer: Tongues and The Baptism in the Holy Spirit [Note: (http://www.ag.org/top/beliefs/baptism_hs/baptmhs_00_questions.cfm) At the above website the document "Assemblies of God Beliefs" answers the following questions:] Questions about the Baptism in the Holy Spirit Do Christians receive the Holy Spirit when they are saved? If so, how is this experience different from the baptism in the Holy Spirit? Can a person receive eternal life in heaven without the baptism in the Holy Spirit? If so, why should we be baptized in the Spirit? Once a person is baptized in the Holy Spirit, why is it necessary to be refilled later? What is the difference between "speaking in tongues" when one is baptized in the Spirit and "speaking in tongues" publicly? Also, what is the advantage of "praying in tongues" in one's private prayer life? When tongues are exercised publicly according to the Biblical standard, should there always be an interpretation? Who should give the interpretation? For whose benefit and for what purpose are there utterances in tongues followed by interpretations? Is it possible for an interpretation of tongues to run contrary to the teachings of the Bible? As humans do we play a role as to whether or not tongues and other gifts will operate in the church? Can a person be filled with the Holy Spirit without speaking in tongues? In the first outpouring recorded in the New Testament, there were tongues of fire and the sound of a violent wind. Why does this not occur today? Is it possible to be saved and baptized in the Holy Spirit at the same time? First Corinthians 13:8 says "Whether there be tongues, they shall cease" (KJV). Wouldn't this indicate the baptism in the Holy Spirit was only for those first followers 2,000 years ago? Since Paul suggested in 1 Corinthians 14:19 that it is better to speak intelligible words in church than to speak in tongues, doesn't it follow that the experience of tongues in unnecessary today? Is there proof that the outpouring of the Holy Spirit experienced today is genuinely biblical? Why do Pentecostals emphasize speaking in tongues when this is only mentioned a few times in Acts and 1 Corinthians 12 to 14? Who should be baptized in the Holy Spirit? When a person is filled with the Holy Spirit, is he in a semi-conscious state, or is he totally coherent and aware of what is happening? Why are some people baptized in the Spirit immediately, while other seek so long without receiving the experience? When an individual is seeking the baptism in the Holy Spirit, can anything be done to prepare his life or environment that will quicken the infilling? Is tongues the only evidence of the infilling of the Holy Spirit? Will there be any significant changes in one's attitudes and actions after being baptized in the Spirit? |