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NASB | Acts 12:4 When he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out before the people. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Acts 12:4 When he had seized Peter, he put him in prison, turning him over to four squads of soldiers of four each to guard him [in rotation throughout the night], planning after the Passover to bring him out before the people [for execution]. |
Subject: Resurrection Sunday or easter? |
Bible Note: Greetings my friend! One might well include the KJV's unusual rendering of Acts 12:4 as more of a mistranslation, and it would be hard to argue against that assertion. "And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people." [Acts 12:4, KJV] "And when he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out before the people." [Acts 12:4, NASB] The word that the KJV translates as "Easter" appears 29 times in the New Testament. In each of the other 28 occurrences, the KJV translates the phrase as "the passover" (for example, see John 19:14). There is no reason for confusion as to what Luke was referring to here, since the preceding verse says, "Then were the days of unleavened bread." The days of unleavened bread, of course, were connected with the Passover celebration. Yet in this one place the KJV contains the anachronistic term "Easter." Luke's reference to the days of "unleavened bread" makes it clear that he is referring to the Jewish holiday season, not to some pagan festival that did not become known by the specific term "Easter" for some time to come. Some KJV Only advocates have tried to defend this anachronistic translation of "Easter" in Acts 12:4, saying that this is evidence of God's providential guidance of the KJV translators. Their argument is that the "days of unleavened bread" extend from the 15th to the 21st of the month, while Passover itself was the 14th. Therefore, according to this reasoning, the Passover was already past, and Herod, a pagan, was referring to "Easter" in its pagan celebration, not the Passover. However, there are problems with this view: 1) The term Easter would STILL be a misleading translation, since the celebration the English reader thinks of is far removed from the pagan worship of Astarte. 2) Herod Agrippa, according to Josephus, was a conspicuous observer of the Jewish customs and rituals. Since he was attempting to please the Jews (Acts 12:3), it is obvious that Luke is referring to the Jewish Passover, not a pagan celebration. 3) This KJV Only argument to save the "infallibility" of the KJV depends on making the "days of unleavened bread" a completely separate period of time from "the Passover." Unfortunately for the KJV Only position, the term "the Passover" is used of the ENTIRE celebration, including the days of unleavened bread after the actual sacrifice of the Passover, in other places in Scripture (John 2:13; 2:23; 6:4; 11:55). Therefore, this ingenious attempt at saving the KJV from "infallibility" fails under this examination. Blessings to you, Makarios |